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olchik [2.2K]
3 years ago
14

A friend claims that it will rain today with probability 30% and tomorrow with probability four times as great as today. Which o

f the following is CORRECT?
The claim can be true because it is more likely to rain tomorrow if we have rain today.
The claim cannot be true because raining tomorrow is not guaranteed. The claim can be true because it is possible to have rain tomorrow.
The claim cannot be true because any probability is between 0 and 1.
Mathematics
2 answers:
Bad White [126]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

  The claim cannot be true because any probability is between 0 and 1.

Step-by-step explanation:

4 times 0.30 is 1.20, a value that cannot be a probability. Any probability will be between 0 and 1 (inclusive).

The claim cannot be true because any probability is between 0 and 1.

Anna007 [38]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer would be:

The claim cannot be true because any probability is between 0 and 1.

Because we can only be 100% certain of something or less.

If he's saying that tomorrow you have 4 times the probability of today, which is 30%, that would be 120%. But you can't be 120% sure that it will rain.

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How can I find x if g(x)=16
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Answer:

X is irrelevant, you cant! g(x) is the same as y so y=16.

Step-by-step explanation:


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3 years ago
a court reporter is transcribing an accident report the report states that the driver was traviling 110km per hour how many mile
Vera_Pavlovna [14]

Answer:

The driver was traveling at approximately 68.2 miles per hour

Step-by-step explanation:

Recall that one km equals approximately 0.62 miles, therefore, in order to find the speed of the driver in miles per hour, we just need to convert the 110 km into miles.

if one km equals 0.62 miles, then 110 km will equal the product of 110 times 0.62 miles. That is:

110 * 0.62 = 68.2 miles

Then the speed will translate into :

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8 0
3 years ago
I NEED HELP ASAP <3
atroni [7]
180% = $270
60% = $90
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3 0
3 years ago
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For every dollar there is 100 pennies. think about that.
Vesnalui [34]

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The answer is 0.01. We assume you are converting between dollar bill and penny. You can view more details on each measurement unit: Dollar or penny The main non-SI unit for U.S. currency is the dollar. 1 dollar is equal to 100 penny. Note that rounding errors may occur, so always check the results.

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
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olga2289 [7]
3x+2y-4z=12 add 4z on both sides 
3x+2y=12+4z  subtract 2y on both sides 
3x=12+4z-2y divide 3 on both sides 
x= 4+4/3z-2/3y 
x= 4+1.25z-.67y

3x+2y-4z=12 subtract 3x on both sides 
2y-4z=12-3x  add 4z to both sides 
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y=6-3/2x+4/2z 
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3x+2y-4z=12 subtract 3x on both sides 
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z=-3-3/4x-2/4y 
z=-3-.75x-.5y  

your welcome you can do the other one 

6 0
3 years ago
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