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guapka [62]
3 years ago
11

Exercise 14-12 On January 2, 2012, Metlock Corporation issued $1,250,000 of 10% bonds at 97 due December 31, 2021. Interest on t

he bonds is payable annually each December 31. The discount on the bonds is also being amortized on a straight-line basis over the 10 years. (Straight-line is not materially different in effect from the preferable "interest method".) The bonds are callable at 102 (i.e., at 102% of face amount), and on January 2, 2017, Metlock called $750,000 face amount of the bonds and redeemed them. Ignoring income taxes, compute the amount of loss, if any, to be recognized by Metlock as a result of retiring the $750,000 of bonds in 2017. (Round answer to 0 decimal places, e.g. 38,548.)
Business
1 answer:
olchik [2.2K]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

the loss on the call was for 26,250

Explanation:

TO know the gain or loss, we will compare the call value with the book value

call value = face value x call points

750,000 x 102/100 = 765,000 call

then book value, will be face value less carrying value of discount

face value:

discount 750,000 x 3% = 22,500

amortization on discount:

22,500/10 = 2,250 per year x 5 years to 2016 from 2012 = 11,250

discount at Jan 2th, 2017 22,500 - 11,250 = 11,250

book value 750,000 - 11,250 discount = 738,750

book value 738,750

call value   (765,000)

loss               (26,250)

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Answer:A,B

Explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
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n applying the lower of cost or market rule, the inventory of rehab equipment would be valued at: A) $315. B) $247. C) $150. D)
Dominik [7]

Answer:

D) $235.

Explanation:

As we know that the inventory should be valued at cost or market value whichever is lower

In the given case

Selling price = $340

Net realizable value is

= Selling price - cost of sell

= $340 - $25

= $315

Replacement cost is $235

Cost = $250

As we can see that the replacement cost is less than the cost so the replacement cost should be valued i.e $235

4 0
3 years ago
Corporation produces a single product. The standard cost card for the product follows:
Likurg_2 [28]

Answer:

Results are below.

Explanation:

<u>To calculate the direct material price and quantity variance, we need to use the following formulas:</u>

Direct material price variance= (standard price - actual price)*actual quantity

Direct material price variance= (5 - 2.1)*56,100

Direct material price variance= $169,690 favorabe

Direct material quantity variance= (standard quantity - actual quantity)*standard price

Direct material quantity variance= (8,840*4 - 36,450)*5

Direct material quantity variance= $5,450 unfavorable

<u>To calculate the direct labor efficiency and rate variance, we need to use the following formulas:</u>

Direct labor time (efficiency) variance= (Standard Quantity - Actual Quantity)*standard rate

Direct labor time (efficiency) variance= (1.5*8,840 - 18,000)*10

Direct labor time (efficiency) variance= $47,400 unfavorable

Direct labor rate variance= (Standard Rate - Actual Rate)*Actual Quantity

Direct labor rate variance= (10 - 8.2)*18,000

Direct labor rate variance= $32,400 favorable

8 0
3 years ago
Software is being developed in 8-hour shifts in which country?
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Answer:

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8 0
3 years ago
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Trucks R' Us has a market capitalization of $142 million, $78 billion in BB rated debt, and $10 billion in cash. If Trucks R' Us
Sati [7]

Answer:

Their underlying asset beta is closest to is 1.08

Explanation:

According to the given data we have the following:

Debt is given as $78 billion

Equity is given as $142 billion

equity beta given as 1.68

Therefore, in order to calculate the underlying asset beta we would have to use the formula of the the equity beta for a levered firm as follows:

betaE =beta A [1 + (Debt / Equity)]

1.68 = \beta A [1 + ($78 B/ $142 B)]

1.68 = \beta A [1 + 0.5493]

betaA = 1.68 / 1.5493

betaA = 1.08

Their underlying asset beta is closest to is 1.08

6 0
4 years ago
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