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astra-53 [7]
3 years ago
12

In Year 1, Costello Company performed work for a customer and billed the customer $14,000. In Year 2, the customer pays Costello

Company for the services it rendered in Year 1. In Year 1, the company incurred $6,000 of wage expense, but it did not pay the employees until Year 2. If Costello Company uses the cash-basis of accounting, then it will report(A) revenue of $14,000 and expense of $6,000 in Year 2. (B) revenue of $14,000 in Year 1 and expense of $6,000 in Year 2. (C) no revenue or expenses in either year. (D) revenue of $14,000 and expense of $6,000 in Year 1. (E) revenue of $14,000 in in Year 2 and expense of $6,000 in Year 1
Business
1 answer:
Orlov [11]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

(A) revenue of $14,000 and expense of $6,000 in Year 2.

Explanation:

If in Year 1, Costello Company performed work for a customer and billed the customer $14,000. and In Year 2, the customer pays Costello Company for the services it rendered in Year 1.

Again if In Year 1, the company incurred $6,000 of wage expense, but it did not pay the employees until Year 2.

If Costello Company uses the cash-basis of accounting, then it will report a revenue of $14,000 and expense of $6,000 in Year 2.

Cash basis Accounting as opposed to accrual basis accounting recognizes expenses and revenue as at when paid as opposed to when earned.

Although the revenues and expenses in the scenario relates to Year 1 and would have been recorded as income and expenses in year 1 under the normal accrual basis, since that is the year the income of $14,000 and expense of $6,000 were earned and expended respectively; that will not be case in Cash-basis because the emphasis is on cash payment and receipt. Hence the choice that the income and revenue should be accounted for in Year 2

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he Clark Company fails to record these two adjusting journal entries: Depreciation on Equipment: $10 Cash Dividends declared: $4
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Answer:

Working Capital will be overstated by the amount of $40.

Explanation:

Of the two the adjusting entries, we need to identify the adjusting entry that affects any element of Working Capital (Current Assets or Current Liability).

Depreciation Entries include : Debit Depreciation Expense (Expense)  $10 and Credit Accumulated Depreciation  $10.

Cash Dividends Declared Entries include : Debit Dividend (Equity) $40 and Credit Shareholders for Dividends (Liability) $40.

Thus, the Liabilities will be understated due to omission of Cash Dividends Declared Entries.

Subsequently, Working Capital will be overstated by the amount of $40.

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5. A firm currently produces its desired level of output. Its marginal product of labor is 400, its marginal product of capital
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Answer:

D.

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7 0
4 years ago
You are considering to buy a $250,000 property with a 80% LTV ratio and have two mortgage choices: a FRM or a FRM with an IO per
scoray [572]

Answer:

Statement # 1: False

Statement # 2: True

Statement # 3: False

Statement # 4: True

Explanation:

Lets look at each statement provided in the question and determine which of them is true or false.

Statement # 1 is false. First things first, the interest on this loan amount is higher which is at 4.15%. This is compared to the interest of 4% applicable on loan option 1. Secondly, there is a four year interest only option. This means that for 4 years there will be no repayments of the principal amount which means that the interest of 4.15% will continue to apply on the entire loan amount for these 4 years. In loan 1 however, principal repayments will reduce the principal amount after the 1st year which would further reduce the interest payment in the second year.

Statement # 2 is true. Loan 2 has an interest only period for the first 4 years. During this year you will only pay the 4.15% interest whereas in loan option 1, you will pay 4% interest AND the principal amount. The effect would offset once principal payments start in loan 2 but it would still mean that payments would be minimized in the first few years.

Statement # 3 is false. One of the advantages of having a loan with an interest free clause is that you can pay it off faster than a conventional loan. Since both the loans are fully amortizing, the principal payments would be different but would both result in the principal being repaid in the full 30 year tenor. Any extra payment that you wish to make would be counted towards principal payment in each loan option. However, for loan 1, the total monthly payments you make would remain the same. For loan 2, the extra payments that you make will continue to lower the monthly payments in way of interest which would allow you to save up more to pay more off in principal. The interest only period will also allow you to arrange extra funds during the IO period and repay the principal further. With loan 1, you will continue to make the same monthly payment until the end.

Statement # 4 is true. A fixed payment is being made each year by way of interest and principal repayments and will remain the same till the loan is fully amortized at maturity. In loan 2 on the other hand, a larger balloon payment will start 4 years later since only interest is paid in the first 4 years. So basically you may lower in the first 4 years and more in the remaining years.

5 0
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