Answer:
Working Capital will be overstated by the amount of $40.
Explanation:
Of the two the adjusting entries, we need to identify the adjusting entry that affects any element of Working Capital (Current Assets or Current Liability).
Depreciation Entries include : Debit Depreciation Expense (Expense) $10 and Credit Accumulated Depreciation $10.
Cash Dividends Declared Entries include : Debit Dividend (Equity) $40 and Credit Shareholders for Dividends (Liability) $40.
Thus, the Liabilities will be understated due to omission of Cash Dividends Declared Entries.
Subsequently, Working Capital will be overstated by the amount of $40.
The answer will be 60. 0%
Answer:
D.
Explanation:
Firms will hire more labor when the marginal revenue product of labor is greater than the wage rate, and stop hiring as soon as the two values are equal.
Answer:
Statement # 1: False
Statement # 2: True
Statement # 3: False
Statement # 4: True
Explanation:
Lets look at each statement provided in the question and determine which of them is true or false.
Statement # 1 is false. First things first, the interest on this loan amount is higher which is at 4.15%. This is compared to the interest of 4% applicable on loan option 1. Secondly, there is a four year interest only option. This means that for 4 years there will be no repayments of the principal amount which means that the interest of 4.15% will continue to apply on the entire loan amount for these 4 years. In loan 1 however, principal repayments will reduce the principal amount after the 1st year which would further reduce the interest payment in the second year.
Statement # 2 is true. Loan 2 has an interest only period for the first 4 years. During this year you will only pay the 4.15% interest whereas in loan option 1, you will pay 4% interest AND the principal amount. The effect would offset once principal payments start in loan 2 but it would still mean that payments would be minimized in the first few years.
Statement # 3 is false. One of the advantages of having a loan with an interest free clause is that you can pay it off faster than a conventional loan. Since both the loans are fully amortizing, the principal payments would be different but would both result in the principal being repaid in the full 30 year tenor. Any extra payment that you wish to make would be counted towards principal payment in each loan option. However, for loan 1, the total monthly payments you make would remain the same. For loan 2, the extra payments that you make will continue to lower the monthly payments in way of interest which would allow you to save up more to pay more off in principal. The interest only period will also allow you to arrange extra funds during the IO period and repay the principal further. With loan 1, you will continue to make the same monthly payment until the end.
Statement # 4 is true. A fixed payment is being made each year by way of interest and principal repayments and will remain the same till the loan is fully amortized at maturity. In loan 2 on the other hand, a larger balloon payment will start 4 years later since only interest is paid in the first 4 years. So basically you may lower in the first 4 years and more in the remaining years.
Either way, there will be an overdraft. the beginning balance is $20 add to it $50 and the total balance is $70. When the two checks totaling $75 are posted to the account, The account will be in the negative whether the checks post before or after the deposit. Before the deposit, the account will be overdrafted $55 if the checks post after the deposit, there will be an overdraft of $5. So, the answer to both questions is yes.