<span>The company is using market-penetration pricing.</span>
Answer:
$6,000,000
Explanation:
Change in risk = 0 in 1,000 to 1 in 1,000 = 0 to 0.001 = +0.001
Change in wage = $30,000 to $36,000 = +$6,000
Therefore:
wage/risk = 6,000/0.001
= $6 million or $6,000,0000
The value of a human life for workers with these characteristics should a cost-benefit analyst use is $6,000,000 because workers are willing to receive an extra $6,000 for a 1 in 1,000 increase in risk of death, implying a value of life of $6 million)Value of human life for workers with these characteristics = $6 million .
In order words the workers require $6,000 to accept a death risk of .001. The value of life implied by this is $6,000/.001 = $6,000,000.
Answer:
d. Accounts payable and accruals are tied directly to sales.
Explanation:
Additional funds needed method determines the amount that the company needs to finance the increase in total sales.
In response to the increase in sales, the company has to increase its assets to achieve that goal. The increase in total assets is partly offset by an increase in liabilities and the other part is offset by an increase in retained earnings.
The only true statement of the AFN equation is the option d), and the other options are not right.
Answer:
A) a finance lease will cause debt to increase, compared to an operating lease
Explanation:
Answer:
The perpetuity payment per year was $2030
Explanation:
A perpetuity is a series of cash flows that are constant, occur after equal intervals of time and are for infinite period of time or are perpetual. Thus, it is like and annuity but with an infinite time period. The formula for the present value of of perpetuity is,
PV of Perpetuity = Cash Flow / r
Where,
- r is the required rate of return
As we already know the present value of perpetuity and the required rate of return, we can input these values in the formula to calculate the annual perpetuity payment or cash flow.
29000 = Cash Flow / 0.07
29000 * 0.07 = Cash Flow
Cash Flow = $2030
