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sasho [114]
3 years ago
10

What is the difference between financial and managerial accounting ?

Business
1 answer:
horrorfan [7]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Financial accounting refer to the financial statement while, managerial is more focus into internal reports

In details, the most difference are as follows:

Aggregation.

Financing reports on the complete firm. While Managerial; at product, division or customer level.

Proven information.

Financing require certain criteria to ensure precision. It need to prove correct to third parties. While Managerial uses budget, forecast and estimated values.

Reporting focus.

Financial accounting is oriented toward outside

Managerial accounting analysis stays within a company.

Legislation:

Financial accounting faces the GAAP, IFRS and heavy legislation.

Managerial accounting doesn't

Time period.

Financial accounting has a historical orientation their reports are resumes of past transactions and operations.

Managerial accounting has a future orientation.

Timing.

Financial Statement are done at end of an accounting period.

Managerial accounting issues on demand of the board or supervisor.

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Harold, a black man, worked for Alegius Financial Services as a sales representative. On three separate occasions over a period
Mnenie [13.5K]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "D": Harold will win his case because the employer was aware of the racially harassing behavior, yet no discipline was imposed.

Explanation:

The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (<em>EEOC</em>) is an agency of the federal government of the United States that enforces laws against race, color, religion, sex, age, or disability discrimination in the workplace. Most employers and unions are covered under EEOC laws.

In Harold's case, the harassment was not specifically against him but there were clear signs of discrimination. However, Alegius Financial Services did not do anything regarding this issue what will result in finding the company liable after Harold sued them.

7 0
3 years ago
Estimating the chance of loss associated with premature death is an objective probability.
vredina [299]

Answer:

t

Explanation:

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8 0
2 years ago
On January 2, 2017, the board of directors of Michael declared a 10% stock dividend to be distributed on February 15, 2017. The
frozen [14]

Answer:

the decrease in the value of the retained earning is $172,500

Explanation:

The computation of the decrease in the value of the retained earning is given below:

The dividend of the stock is

= (25,000 shares - 2,000 shares) × 10% × $75

= $172,500

Since there is the stock dividend of $172,500 so it ultimately reduced the retained earning account by $172,500

8 0
3 years ago
If price is greater than average variable cost and less than average total cost at the profit-maximizing quantity of output in t
navik [9.2K]

Answer:

produce at an economic loss.

Explanation:

In a perfect competition, there are many buyers and sellers of homogeneous products, and there is free entry and exit in the market.

This simply means that, in a perfectly competitive market, there are many buyers and sellers (price takers) of homogeneous products (standardized products with substitute) and the market is free (practically open) to all individuals or business entities that are willing to trade all their goods and services.

In a perfectly competitive market in long-run equilibrium, a long-run equilibrium avails firms the opportunity to adjust all inputs and all fixed costs are maximized. Also, it's characterized by free entry and exit, as such there isn't a fixed number of firms. This simply means that, since the number of firms in a long-run equilibrium can change, a firm must exit the market as a result of losses i.e when the firm is unable to cover its fixed costs in the long-run while new firms are allowed entry into the market when it anticipates potential profits or gains.

However, the firms always strive to maximize profits by increasing their level of output, such that P = MC. Also, the firms wouldn't be willing to leave or enter into the market because they are not making any profit, such that P=AC.

In a nutshell, in the long run equilibrium P=MR=MC and P=AC.

Hence, if price is greater than average variable cost and less than average total cost at the profit-maximizing quantity of output in the short run, a perfectly competitive firm will produce at an economic loss.

Additionally, Average Total Cost (ATC) can be defined as the overall cost of production divided by total output of production. It is calculated by dividing total cost by total output of production or by adding TVC and TFC.

8 0
3 years ago
Orchard Farms has a pretax cost of debt of 7.29 percent and a cost of equity of 16.3 percent. The firm uses the subjective appro
svp [43]

Answer: Net present value =  $446,556

Explanation:

First we'll compute the Weighted Average Cost of Capital :

Weighted Average Cost of Capital = K_{e} \times W_{e} + K_{d} \times W_{d}

= 0.163×\frac{1}{1.48} + 0.0729× (1 - 0.35 )× \frac{0.48}{1.48}  

= 0.1255

where;

K_{e} = Cost of equity

W_{e} = Proportion of equity

K_{d} = Cost of debt

W_{d} = Proportion of debt

Now, we'll compute the cost of capital using the following formula:

Cost of capital = Weighted Average Cost of Capital + adjustment factor

= 0.1255 + 0.0125

= 0.138 or 13.8%

∴ Net present value = Cash outflows - Total PV of cash flows

= $3,900,000 - $1,260,000 (Annuity value of 13.8% for 5 years)

= 3,900,000 - 1260000 \times \frac{[1-(1+13.8)^{-5}]}{13.8}

= $3,900,000 - $3,453,444

= $446,556

Therefore, the correct answer is option(b).

5 0
3 years ago
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