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belka [17]
3 years ago
10

An analysis of Baker, Inc.'s operating income for the last two years showed the following: Operating income for 2011 $1,200,000

Add growth component 30,000 Add price-recovery component 200,000 Deduct productivity component (16,000) Operating income for 2012 $1,414,000 This gain in operating income is consistent with aA) reengineering strategyB) cost leadership strategyC) downsizing strategyD) product differentiation strategy

Business
1 answer:
kupik [55]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

D) Product Differentiation Strategy:

Explanation:

You might be interested in
institution ID Institution II 1. finances budget deficits. 1. loans funds to the banking system. 2. Sells newly issued governmen
mars1129 [50]

Answer: The answer is central bank

Explanation:

Budget deficit : This is when government total proposed expenditure for a period is more than the total estimated revenue. When this happens, government get the money to finance the deficit in the budget from the central bank or ask the central bank to print more currency or get aid and grant from foreign aid donors to finance the deficit.

Loan fund to the banking system: This is a function of central bank when they act as lenders of last resort to the commercial bank. If people begins to withdraw their money from commercial banks, the banks may be placed in such a position that they will not have enough cash to pay their customers. They will run to the central bank to borrow money or to rediscount bills and the central bank must not refuse to come to the aid of commercial banks in order to prevent banking crisis which may shake a country's economy.

Sells newly issued government bond : This is when central bank wants to reduce the volume of money in circulation, the central bank sells bond or securities in the open market .people buy with cheque drawn on their deposits in the commercial banks. The central bank then presents the cheque to the commercial bank and draw on their cash reserves by this the cash reserve of commercial banks is reduced and reduce the supply of money in the economy.

Create money out of thin air: This is the central bank function of issuing notes, it is the legal authority to issue notes. When new notes are to be put into circulation, this is done by the central bank .but the new notes are set into circulation through the commercial banks.

Control the money supply : This is the function of central bank to regulate the volume of money in circulation or to mop up excess liquidity in the economy by selling treasury bill through the open market to the members of the public .It collect money from the commercial banks this will reduce the cash reserves of commercial banks and reduce their loan given capacity.

Government bonds, the money supply : The central bank is the legal authority to sell government bonds in order to mop up the excess liquidity in the economy. When their is too much money in circulation, the central bank make use of monetary policy instruments such as the open market operation to reduce the supply of money in circulation.

7 0
3 years ago
Assume the following information from a schedule of cost of goods manufactured:
Evgesh-ka [11]

Answer:

The manufacturing overhead applied to work in process is:

D. $79,000

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

Beginning work in process inventory          30,000

Direct materials used in production            50,000

Direct labor                                                   60,000

Total manufacturing costs to account for 219,000

Manufacturing overhead applied to WIP   79,000 (219,000 - 140,000)

Ending work in process inventory              72,000

b) The manufacturing overhead applied to Work in Process is the difference between the total manufacturing costs to account for and the costs of beginning work in process, direct materials, and direct labor for the period.  When the ending work in process is deducted from the total manufacturing costs, the resulting figure represents the cost of goods transferred to finished goods inventory.

3 0
3 years ago
In preparing a budgeted balance sheet, the dollar amount of Accounts Receivable can be derived from: Multiple Choice The purchas
Fittoniya [83]

The sales budget and the schedule of cash receipts.

Option B.

<u>Explanation:</u>

Account receivable is the account which consists of the amount that is to be received by a firm for the goods and the services that have been delivered to the customers but the amount and the payment has not yet been received by the firm for the same.

The amount of money that is still to be received can be derived from the accounts having the sales that is done by the firm to the clients.

8 0
3 years ago
When inventory declines in value below original (historical) cost, and this decline is considered other than temporary, what is
quester [9]

Answer:

Explanation:

The applicable accounting standard IAS 2 (Inventory) requires that inventory be carried at the lower of cost or net realizable value.

Initial recognition of inventory is at cost. In other words, where the cost is lower than the net realizable value, inventory is written down to the net realizable value.

As such, when inventory declines in value below original (historical) cost, and this decline is considered other than temporary, the maximum amount that the inventory can be valued at is the net realizable value.

The right option is b. Net realizable value

5 0
4 years ago
You are evaluating two different silicon wafer milling machines. The Techron I costs $285,000, has a three-year life, and has pr
KonstantinChe [14]

Answer:

EAC Techron I = -$141,050

EAC Techron II = -$138,181

Explanation:

Techron I costs $285,000, has a three-year life, and has pretax operating costs of $78,000 per year. Salvage value $55,000, use straight line depreciation.

annuity factor = [1 - 1/(1 + r)ⁿ] / r = [1 - 1/(1 + 0.11)³] / 0.11 = 2.4437

depreciation expense per year = ($285,000 - $55,000) / 3 = $76,667

cash outflow years 1 and 2 = [($78,000 + $76,667) x (1 - 24%)] - $76,667 = ($154,667 x 0.76) - $76,667 = $40,880

cash outflow year 3 = [($78,000 + $76,667) x (1 - 24%)] - $76,667 - $55,000 = ($154,667 x 0.76) - $76,667 - $55,000 = -$14,120

NPV = -285,000 - 40,880/1.11 - 40,880/1.11² + 14,120/1.11³ = -285,000 - 36,829 - 33,179 + 10,324 = -344,684

EAC = NPV / annuity factor = -344,684 / 2.4437 = -$141,050

Techron II costs $495,000, has a five-year life, and has pretax operating costs of $45,000 per year. Salvage value $55,000, use straight line depreciation.

annuity factor = [1 - 1/(1 + r)ⁿ] / r = [1 - 1/(1 + 0.11)⁵] / 0.11 = 3.6959

depreciation expense per year = ($495,000 - $55,000) / 5 = $88,000

cash outflow years 1 through 4 = [($45,000 + $88,000) x (1 - 24%)] - $88,000 = ($133,000 x 0.76) - $88,000 = $13,080

cash outflow year 5 = [($45,000 + $88,000) x (1 - 24%)] - $88,000 - $55,000 = ($133,000 x 0.76) - $88,000 - $55,000 = -$41,920

NPV = -495,000 - 13,080/1.11 - 13,080/1.11² - 13,080/1.11³ - 13,080/1.11⁴ + 41,920/1.11⁵ = -495,000 - 11,784 - 10,616 - 9,564 - 8,616 + 24,877 = -510,703

EAC = NPV / annuity factor = -510,703 / 3.6959 = -$138,181

4 0
3 years ago
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