Answer:$27.78
Explanation:
Expected value of debt after one year = (40* .60)+(15*.40)
= 24 + 6
=$ 30
Current value of debt = Value at 1year / (1+r)^n
= 30/ (1+.08)^1
= 30 / 1.08
=$ 27.78
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Primary market refers to the market in which the securities are sold to the general public for the first time by the companies. In simple words, the initial public offering process takes place in such markets. The securities could be of any type whether debt, equity or preference.
The market in which existing securities are bough and sold is called secondary market. And the commission is paid in both secondary and primary market.
Hence the correct option is C.
Answer: Risk Report
Explanation:
A Risk Report for a project contains all the risk that the project is exposed to. This includes both project risk as well as individual risks related to the components projects in the overall project.
A Risk Report details the risks such as Supplier failure, Inflation, Pending Government Regulations and the like. It then takes these and summarizes them for presentation to those who require this information in the company so that appropriate safeguards may be set up and precautions taken.
This describes the first document and so should be what the Project Manager names it.
Answer:
$30,000
Explanation:
The computation is shown below:
As we know that
Current ratio = Current assets ÷ Current liabilities
Current assets = 3.4 × Current liabilities
Now the
Acid-test ratio = Quick assets ÷ Current liabilities
2.8 = Currents assets - inventory ÷ Current liabilities
2.8 = 3.4 × Current liabilities - $18,000 ÷ Current liabilities
2.8 × Current liabilities = 3.4 × Current liabilities - $18,000
After solving this, the current liabilities is $30,000
What is an alimony? By the end of the the four months, in all, he owes $14,000 I am pretty sure
