Hi!
Answers:
51. w=9/4
53. b=12
Answer:
The answer is D. Here is proof. PLEEEAAASE mark brainliest.
Step-by-step explanation:
Start with the Pythagorean theorem{A²+B²=C², A and B are the sides and C is the Hypotenuse/Longest Side.}
2²+4²=C²
4+16=C²
20=C².....{now square root both sides.√}
√20=√C²
4.472= C
P.S.: hope I helped :)
Answer:
nobody
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer: Option B
Step-by-step explanation:
By definition, only those functions that are one to one have an inverse function.
A function is one by one if there are not two different input values,
and
, that have the same output value y
Note that the function
is not a one-to-one function
When x=2 
When x=8 
Note that the function
is not a one-to-one function
When x=1 
When x=-1 
Note that the function
is not a one-to-one function
When x=1 
When x=-1 
Then the answer is the option B.
You can verify that The function
is a one-to-one function and therefore its inverse is a function