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dlinn [17]
3 years ago
9

On January 1, 2015, Alpha Manufacturing purchased a machine for $920,000. The company expects the machine to remain useful for e

ight years and to have a residual value of $70,000. Alpha Manufacturing uses the straight-line method to depreciate its machinery. Alpha Manufacturing used the machine tor four years and sold it on January 1, 2019. for S400.000. Compute accumulated depreciation on the machine at January 1, 2019 (same as December 31, 2018). Record the sale of the machine on January 1, 2019.
Business
1 answer:
Pie3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The accumulated depreciation at 1 January 2019 = $425000

January 1, 2019

Accumulated Depreciation               425000 Dr

Cash                                                    400000 Dr

Loss on disposal                                95000 Dr

      Machine                                                               920000 Cr

Explanation:

The straight line method of depreciation charges a constant depreciation expense every year through out the estimated useful of the asset. The depreciation expense per year under this method is calculated as,

Depreciation expense per year = (Cost - Residual value) / estimated useful life of the asset

Depreciation expense per year = (920000 - 70000) / 8 = $106250 per year

The asset was used for four years from 2015 to 2018. Thus, the accumulated depreciation at 31 December 2018 is,

Accumulated depreciation - 31 Dec 2018 = 106250 * 4 = $425000

The Net book value of the asset at 31 December 2018 = 920000 - 425000 = $495000

The loss on disposal is = 495000 - 400000 = $95000

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You are the financial manager of the Crossrail 1 project in London. The Board overseeing the project, acting on behalf of the UK
-BARSIC- [3]

Crossrail 1 project is about to start in London.

This project will require an initial investment of 9.4 billion. The project will start earning cash flows from year  and it will continue to year 60 which is useful life of the project.

The NPV for the project will be 7.36 which is positive. The correct answer is c.

The payback period for project is 13.04 years which is given in the option a so correct answer is a.

The internal rate of return for the project is b. 7.35 .

Based on our analytics and calculation since NPV is positive so cross rail project is beneficial. The board should consider launching this project.

Learn more at  brainly.com/question/24353321

8 0
2 years ago
Marion Industries has an average accounts receivable turnover ratio of 12 times per year whereas most of its competitors have a
deff fn [24]

Answer:

C. using more liberal credit terms to increase sales

Explanation:

According to the question  it is given that the ratio of account receivable turnover has measured that comes 12 times which means it took 30 days

= 365 ÷ 12

= 30.41

= 30 days

But according to the competition, the ratio of account receivable turnover is 8 times so the competitor took 45 days

Therefore the Management of marian would have more liberal credit terms that would increase the sales

5 0
3 years ago
Monkey See. Monkey Take and<br> Humans vs Chimps
DedPeter [7]

Answer:

Monkey do

Explanation:

3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Record the following process costing transactions in the general journal:
Ne4ueva [31]

Answer:

a.

Raw Materials $9,300 (debit)

Account Payable $9,300 (credit)

b.

Assembly Department  $4,300 (debit)

Finishing Department $2,400 (debit)

Raw Materials $6,700 (credit)

c.

WIP Inventory-Assembly $10,500 (debit)

Cash $10,500 (credit)

d.

Overheads $12,100 (debit)

Property taxes-plant: Payable $1, 800 (credit)

Utilities-plant : Payable $4, 800 (credit)

Insurance-plant : Payable, $1, 700 (credit)

Provision for Depreciation-plant, $3, 800 (credit)

e.

Work In Process -  Assembly Department $7,600 (debit)

Direct labor, $5, 000 (credit)

Manufacturing overhead, $2, 600 (credit)

f.

Work In Process -  Finishing Department $11,300 (debit)

Direct labor, $4,700 (credit)

Manufacturing overhead, $6,600 (credit)

g.

Finishing Department, $10,500 (debit)

Assembly Department $10,500 (credit)

h.

Finished Goods Inventory $15,600 (debit)

Finishing Department $15,600 (credit)

Explanation:

Manufacturing costs accumulate in the Work In Process Account of their respective departments.

When goods are transferred out of the Assembly Department to the Finishing Department, de-recognize the cost from Assembly Department (credit) and recognized the cost in Finishing Department (debit).

When cost of goods completed are transferred out of the Finishing Department into Finished Goods Inventory, we de-recognize the cost from  Finishing Department and recognize it in the Finished Goods Inventory.

5 0
3 years ago
A mining company is considering a new project. Because the mine has received a permit, the project would be legal; but it would
IgorLugansk [536]

Answer:

With mitigation: NPV =$36,670,000, IRR= 15,24%

Without mitigation: NPV= $ 42,000,000, IRR= 19,86%

Explanation:

To calculate the Net Present Value (NPV) we have to sum the present value of a project´s cash flows (positive and negative cashflows). To do so, we need: the number of periods of the project, the discount rate, cost of captal  or WACC, and the future values of the cash flows. Then we apply the formula attached.

To calculate the Internal Rate of Return (IRR) we have to find the discount rate, cost of capital or WACC that makes the NPV equal to cero. That means we have to find a rate in which the investor do not create or destroy value, only recovers the investment. I attached the formula.

But, this is better if we use excel:

First we copy the cash flows of the two projects. To find the NPV we use the financial formula "NPV" in this way:

"=NPV(rate;cash flows from year 1 to year 5)+ cash flow of year 0"

To find the IRR we use the financial formula "IRR" in this way:

"=IRR(cash flows from year 0 to year 5)"

I attached the excel figure.

6 0
3 years ago
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