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tatiyna
3 years ago
8

F(x) and g(x) are inverse functions. What is g(f(-4)) equal to?

Mathematics
2 answers:
Alexxx [7]3 years ago
4 0
1/f(-4) should be the answer
Maslowich3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

g(f(-4))=-4.

Step-by-step explanation:

An inverse function is a function that will “undo” anything that the original function does. For example, if a function takes <em>a</em> to <em>b</em>, then the inverse must take <em>b</em> to <em>a</em>.

These are the conditions for two functions f and g to be inverses:

  • f(g(x))=x for all x in the domain of g
  • g(f(x))=x for all x in the domain of f

This is because if f(x) and g(x) are inverses, composing f(x) and g(x) (in either order) creates the function that for every input returns that input. This is known as “the identity function".

We know that f(x) and g(x) are inverse functions and according with the above information we get that:

g(f(-4))=-4

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