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Ann [662]
3 years ago
11

Bean Manufacturing reported the following information for 2016: Operating expenses are: Salaries, $100,000; Depreciation, $40,00

0; Rent, $20,000; Utilities, $28,000 Operating expenses are paid during the month incurred. Accounts payable is used only for inventory acquisitions. How much is the budgeted amount of cash to be paid for operating expenses in November? $404,000 $148,000 $188,000 $444,000
Business
1 answer:
mafiozo [28]3 years ago
6 0

Answer: $148,000

Explanation:

The Operating Expenses in the above question are, Salaries of $100,000, Depreciation of $40,000, Rent of $20,000 and Utilities of $28,000.

Depreciation is an operating expenses but not one that requires a cash payment as it is a non-cash Expenditure.

This means that in calculating the amount of cash to budget we add up all the other operating expenses except Depreciation.

= 100,000 + 20,000 + 28,000

= $148,000

$148,000 is the budgeted amount of cash to be paid for operating expenses in November.

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3 years ago
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If the unemployment rate falls below its long-run level, which policies would be appropriate to stabilize output? a. increase th
olganol [36]

Answer:

c. decrease the money supply, increase taxes

Explanation:

Unemployment rate lower than the natural rate of unemployment (long run unemployment), creates inflationary gap in the economy. It requires policies to be contractionary in nature. Hence, money supply should decrease and tax should increase to correct the economy.

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4 years ago
Abby consumes only apples. In year1, red apples cost $1 each, green apples cost $2 each, and Abby buys 10 red apples. In year 2,
Hitman42 [59]

Answer:

Part A)  

Consumer price index is an amount of the average variation over time in the amounts paid by customers for a market basket of customer goods and services.

CPI= (Updated Cost/Base Period Cost) x 100

For multiple products, we have to ruminate the weights or proportion of expenditure of an item

CPI2= (P2Red xQ1Red) + (P2grn x Q1grn) / (P1Red xQ1Red) + (P1grn x Q1grn)

CPI2= (2 x 10) + (1x0)/ (1x10) + (2x0)

CPI2= 2

Based on the CPI in year 2, prices have doubled.

Part B)

Nominal expenditure is the total worth of outcome produced or expended in each year.

In year 1 and year 2, Abby buys

Year 1= $1 x 10= $10

Year 2= $1 x 10= $10

So, nominal expenditure remains constant at $10.

Part C)

Real expenditure is the quantity consumed or the basket in the current year calculated at the base year price.

Base year prices: Red $1& Green $2

Real expenditure in year 1  = (P1rQ1r) + (P1gQ1g)

                                               =$1x10 + X2x0

                                               = $10

Real expenditure in year 2  = (P1rQ2r) + (P1gQ2g)

                                       = (1x 0) + (2 x 10)

                                       = $20

So, real expenditure has increased from $10 to $20

Part D).

Implicit value deflator in year 1, it is the base year so it will be continuously 1 as the actual and nominal amounts are equal.

Implicit price deflator in year  = nominal expenditure/real expenditure

Implicit price deflator in year 1 = 10/10

                                                = 1

Implicit price deflator in year2  = 10/20

                                                = 0.5

Thus, the implicit value deflator proposes that prices have dropped by half. The cause for this is that the deflator evaluations how much Abby standards her appeals using prices dominant in year 1.

We can perceive from this perception that the green apples are appreciated more .And when Abby consumes more green apples in year 2, it appears that her consumption has augmented as the price deflator standards green apples more than the red apples.

Part E)

Abby considers that red apples and green apples as perfect alternatives, then the cost of living in this budget has not changed in both year it costs $10 to eat 10 apples.

Permitting to the CPl, however, the cost of living has gathered. This is because it only takes into justification the detail that the red apple price has gathered; the CPl overlooks the fall in the price of green apples as they were not in the consumption package in year 1.

In difference to the CPI, the implicit value deflator approximations the cost of living has shared.

CPI is calculated based on the Laspreyers Index method, where the amount in the numerator is the amount in the base year. Where as in the Passche price index, the numerator is the Recent price calculated for current capacity of consumption.

The Laspeyres index inclines to exaggerate rise (in a cost of living framework), while the Paasche index tends to understate it, because the indices do not account for the fact that consumers typically react to value variations by changing the amounts that they buy. For example, if prices go up for good X then, at ceteris paribus, amounts of that good should go downcast.

7 0
3 years ago
Riverside Manufacturing designs and manufactures bathtubs for home and commercial applications. Riverside recorded the following
Papessa [141]

Answer:

variable overhead efficiency variance= $9,200 favorable

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Riverside recorded the following data for its commercial bathtub production line during ​ March:

Standard DL hours per tub= 4

Standard variable overhead rate per DL hour= $ 8.00

Standard variable overhead cost per unit= $ 32.00

Actual variable overhead costs= $ 18,450

Actual DL hours= 2,050

Actual variable overhead cost per machine hour= $ 9.00

Actual tubs produced= 800

We need to use the following formula:

variable overhead efficiency variance= (Standard Quantity - Actual Quantity)*Standard Rate

SQ= 800 tubs* 4 hours=  3,200 hours

AQ= 2,050 hours

SR= $8 per direct labor hour

variable overhead efficiency variance= (3,200 - 2,050)*8= $9,200 favorable

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3 years ago
Why do firms generally prefer to borrow funds to obtain long-term financing rather than issue shares of stock?
Juli2301 [7.4K]
The more firms get from obligation as opposed to issuing stocks, the more it can diminish the aggregate cost of capital in light of the fact that the enthusiasm from obligation is duty deductible which will help reduce the aggregate cost of capital. In any case, no firm can get from obligation everlastingly in light of the fact that, at one point in time, extra obligation financing will make the aggregate cost of capital increment rather than decline. So firms will get in view of their own enhanced capital structure to limit the aggregate cost of capital however much as could reasonably be expected. Also, in light of this upgraded capital structure, there is a point of confinement to how much a firm can keep getting from obligation.
4 0
3 years ago
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