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tankabanditka [31]
3 years ago
14

The term applied to the amount of cost to transfer to expense resulting from a decline in the utility of intangible assets is:__

____. a. amortization. b. depletion. c. allocation. d. depreciation.
Business
1 answer:
kondaur [170]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

a. amortization

Explanation:

The intangible assets are those assets which cannot be seen or even touched and are reported in the asset side of the balance sheet

The examples are patents, copyrights, trademarks, goodwill, etc.  

The journal entry to record the amortization expense is shown below:

Amortization expense A/c Dr XXXXX

     To Intangible asset A/c $32,380

(Being amortization expense is recorded)

The amortization expense for the intangible assets is considered, not the depreciation expense plus it reduced the utility of intangible assets

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Real GDPa.is the current dollar value of all goods produced by the citizens of an economy within a given time. b.measures econom
Gre4nikov [31]

Answer:all of the above are Correct (D)

Explanation:

Real GDP is a macro economic statistics that measure the value of the goods and services produced by an economy in a specific period , adjusted for inflation. Government use both minimal and real GDP as metrics for analyzing economic growth and purchasing power over time.

3 0
2 years ago
Marco, Jaclyn, and Carrie formed Daxing Partnership (a calendar-year-end entity) by contributing cash 10 years ago. Each partner
kirill [66]

a. The hot assets per Section 741(a) for this sale are as follows:

i. Accounts receivable

ii. Inventory

iv. Potential depreciation recapture in the equipment

b. Marco's gain or loss on the sale of his partnership interest is $33,000.

c. The character of Marco's gain or loss is <u>iv. $33,000 capital gain</u>.

<h3>What is a partnership interest?</h3>

A partnership interest refers to a partner's ownership and benefits that accrue from the partnership.

The partnership interest entitles the partner to participate in the distribution of profits and losses arising from the partnership business.

<h3>Data and Calculations:</h3>

Each partner's outside basis = $104,000

Sale proceeds of Marco's partnership interest = $137,000

Gain = $33,000 ($137,000 - $104,000)

Thus, Marco, who sold his partnership interest to Ryan, had a capital gain of $33,00 because of the difference between the sale proceeds and the partner's adjusted basis in the partnership interest.

Learn more about partnership interests at brainly.com/question/14835194

4 0
1 year ago
According to the efficient market theory, A. prices of actively traded stocks can only be under-valued in an efficient market B.
Otrada [13]

Answer:

The correct answer to the following question will be Option D.

Explanation:

  • The theory or hypothesis that even as soon as it arrives, all institutional investors obtain as well as act on most of the necessary information or data. Even if this was purely real, there would have been no stronger investing strategy than just a coin flip.
  • As per this principle, the dynamically trading share prices in such a competitive market don't vary from actual measured value or beliefs.

The other choices have no relation to the given circumstance. So choice D is the correct answer to the above.

7 0
3 years ago
Q Co. prepares monthly income statements. A physical inventory is taken only at year end; hence, month-end inventories must be e
Dmitriy789 [7]

Answer:

$14,000

Explanation:

Sale made = Accounts Receivable on 30 June + Collections of accounts - Accounts Receivable on 1 June

= $15,000 + $25,000 - $10,000

= $30,000

Cost of goods sold = Sales made ÷ rate of mark-up on cost

= $30,000 ÷ 150% × 100%

= $20,000

Estimated cost of the June 30 inventory = Inventory Balance on June 1 +  Purchases made during June -  Cost of goods sold

= $18,000 + $16,000 - $20,000

= $34,000 - $20,000

= $14,000

5 0
3 years ago
Precise Machinery is analyzing a proposed project. The company expects to sell 7,500 units, ±10 percent. The expected variable c
statuscvo [17]

Answer:

$2,703,940

Explanation:

Calculation for the operating cash flow based on this analysis

Particulars Amount

Sales amount 6,375,000

(850*7,500)

Less vaiable cost 2,355,000

(314*7,500)

Less Fixed cost 647,000

Less Depreciation 187,000

PBT 3,186,000

Tax 21% 669,060

(21%*3,186,000)

PAT 2,516,940

(3,186,000-669,060)

Add: Depreciation 187,000

Operating cash flow $2,703,940

(2,516,940+187,000)

Therefore the operating cash flow based on this analysis will be $2,703,940

4 0
2 years ago
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