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tankabanditka [31]
3 years ago
14

The term applied to the amount of cost to transfer to expense resulting from a decline in the utility of intangible assets is:__

____. a. amortization. b. depletion. c. allocation. d. depreciation.
Business
1 answer:
kondaur [170]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

a. amortization

Explanation:

The intangible assets are those assets which cannot be seen or even touched and are reported in the asset side of the balance sheet

The examples are patents, copyrights, trademarks, goodwill, etc.  

The journal entry to record the amortization expense is shown below:

Amortization expense A/c Dr XXXXX

     To Intangible asset A/c $32,380

(Being amortization expense is recorded)

The amortization expense for the intangible assets is considered, not the depreciation expense plus it reduced the utility of intangible assets

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The following information pertains to Torque Corp.'s outstanding stock for 2021: Common stock, $1 par value Shares outstanding,
azamat

Answer:

135,000 shares

Explanation:

The stock split is the re-denomination of the shares where the number of shares increases without a corresponding increase in shareholders' equity.For instance assigning two shares for each share had earlier with two new shares priced at the price of previous one share,however in calculating the number of shares applicable to basic earnings stock split is treated retrospectively,as if it has always been part of the company's shares

Opening number of shares                                         60,000

add increase due to stock split(2*60,000)-60,000   60,000

new shares half-way through the year 30,000*6/12   15,000

Weighted average number of shares                           135,000          

7 0
3 years ago
Cartier corporation currently sells its products for $50 per unit. the company's variable costs are $20 per unit. fixed expenses
charle [14.2K]
The answer is 40%, in which the following are given: the Variable expense is equal to 20 dollars per unit and Sales is equal to 50 dollars per unit. Use the formula Variable Expense Ratio = Variable Expenses / Sales to get the answer. 

Variable Expense Ratio = Variable Expenses / Sales
Variable Expense Ratio = 20 dollars per unit / 50 dollars per unit
Variable Expense Ratio = 40 %

The variable expense ratio is an expression of variable production costs of the company as a percentage of sales, calculated as variable expense divided by total sales. It compares a cost that alters with levels of production to the number of revenues generated by production.
8 0
3 years ago
Item11 2 points Time Remaining 1 hour 57 minutes 8 seconds01:57:08 Item 11 Time Remaining 1 hour 57 minutes 8 seconds01:57:08 An
Zanzabum

Answer: Bonds do not affect owner control.

Explanation:

Bonds are simply refered to as the units of corporate debts which are being issued by companies. It is a fixed income instrument and its advantage is that the bonds do not affect owner control.

Bonds can also bring about a rise in the return on equity. Therefore, the correct option is A.

3 0
3 years ago
Compute the future value of $1,900 continuously compounded for: a. 7 years at an annual percentage rate of 8 percent. (Do not ro
saul85 [17]

Answer:

$14,407.72

$10,604.64

$15,979.32

Explanation:

The formula to be used is :

FV = PV x е^r x N

FV = Future value  

P = Present value  

R = interest rate  

N = number of years

$1,900 x e^0.08 x 7 = $14,407.72

$1,900 x e^0.11 x 5 = $10,604.64

$1,900 x e^0.05 x 8 = $15,979.32

5 0
2 years ago
Introduction in a formal
Igoryamba

Answer:

well

Explanation:

name , age , address

6 0
1 year ago
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