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ziro4ka [17]
3 years ago
5

Leo's lawn care charges 72$ for the first hour of mowing, plus 45 for each additional hour. which equation represents this situa

tion? select two answers.
​

Mathematics
2 answers:
larisa86 [58]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

e &a

Step-by-step explanation:

45 is the slope (m)

72 is the y-intercept (0,72)

Anton [14]3 years ago
6 0
72+(45xn) with n being the amount of additional hours
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If a test have 40 points all together to get a 100% and I got 36 points . What’s my grade?
Serggg [28]

Your grade will be a 90 percent

4 0
3 years ago
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In how many ways can you place 50 identical balls in six distinct urns such that each urn contains an odd number of balls
mezya [45]

Answer:

80730

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer is c(27,5)=27*26*25*24*23/5!. Here is why.

Let us solve a simpler problem. In how many ways 25 identical balls can be placed in six distinct urns such that no urn is empty?

25 balls in a row make 24 places for five dividers, so the answer is c(24,5).

2. Next problem. In how many ways 50 identical balls can be placed in six distinct urns such that no urn is empty and each urn contains even number of balls.

We group 50 balls in 25 pairs, so the answer is the same as in the previous problem which is

c(48/2,5)=c(24,5).

Let us denote the content of each urn as

u(1),u(2),…u(6). Note that each u(i) is even. Denote u(i) as u(i)=2k(i) where k is a natural number. We have

2k(1)+2k(2)+2k(3)+2k(4)+2k(5)+2k(6)=50.

3. Now let us proceed to the original problem where odd number of balls in each urn is required.

We have

2k(1)-1+2k(2)-1+2k(3)-1+2k(4)-1+2k(5)-1+2k(6)-1=50 or

2k(1)+2k(2)+2k(3)+2k(4)+2k(5)+2k(6)=56.

So the original problem reduces to previous problem where even number of balls in each urn is required but the total number of balls is 56 instead of 50.

Its answer is c(54/2,5)=c(27,5).

8 0
3 years ago
Is 7/8 or 11/10 closer to 1? how did you decide?
nirvana33 [79]
11/10 is closer to 1. 
To solve for this, give them common denominators. Lets make it 80 for this one.
To get 80, you multiply 8 by 10, so you have to do the same to the number on top. This gives you 70/80.
To get 80 for the second fraction, you multiply by 8 and get 88/80.
Now lets take the numbers on top and subtract them from 80. 
88 - 80 = 8
80 - 70 = 10
8 is less than 10, and so 11/10 is closer.
7 0
3 years ago
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Test) plz tell me! 45+68-284=?​
jeyben [28]
STEP BY STEP
68 + 45 = 113
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ANSWER: - 171
5 0
3 years ago
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What is the inequality -24<3(3x-2)<30
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Answer:

− 2  <  x  <  4

Step-by-step explanation:

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