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AleksandrR [38]
3 years ago
14

risk is the risk of a decline in a bond's value due to an increase in interest rates. This risk is higher on bonds that have lon

g maturities than on bonds that will mature in the near future. risk is the risk that a decline in interest rates will lead to a decline in income from a bond portfolio. This risk is obviously high on callable bonds. It is also high on short-term bonds because the shorter the bond's maturity, the fewer the years before the relatively high old-coupon bonds will be replaced with new low-coupon issues. Which type of risk is more relevant to an investor depends on the investor's , which is the period of time an investor plans to hold a particular investment.
Business
1 answer:
Ilya [14]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Price Risk, Reinvestment Risk, Investment Horizon and Longer maturity Bond.

Explanation:

  • Price risk is the risk of a decline in a bond's value due to an increase in interest rates. This risk is higher on bonds that have long maturities than on bonds that will mature in the near future.
  • Reinvestment risk is the risk that a decline in interest rates will lead to a decline in income from a bond portfolio. This risk is obviously high on callable bonds. It is also high on short-term bonds because the shorter the bond's maturity, the fewer the years before the relatively high old-coupon bonds will be replaced with new low-coupon issues.
  • Which type of risk is more relevant to an investor depends on the investor's investment horizon, which is the period of time an investor plans to hold a particular investment.
  • Longer maturity bonds have high price risk but low reinvestment risk, while higher coupon bonds have a higher level of reinvestment risk and a lower level of price risk.
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An economy produces only apples and oranges. The base year is 2012, and the table gives the quantities produced and the prices
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Iuuu is bigger then her
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2 years ago
The trial balance for Lindor Corporation, a manufacturing company, for the year ended December 31, 2016, included the following
Maurinko [17]

Answer:

Net income = $364,000

Earning per share (EPS) = $0.36 per share.

Explanation:

A continuous multiple-step statement of comprehensive income is a form of income statement shows in a categorical and continuous manner operating income, i.e. the profit earned from the primary activities of an entity through buying and selling merchandise, other income and expenses, and net income.

For this question, continuous multiple-step statement of comprehensive income can be prepared as follows:

Lindor Corporation

Multiple-step Statement of Comprehensive Income for 2016

<u>Details                                                                  $      </u>

Sales revenue                                            2,300,000

Cost of goods sold                                    <u> 1,400,000 </u>

Gross profit                                                   900,000

Operating expenses:

Selling and administrative expenses        <u> (420,000) </u>

Operating income                                        480,000

Non operating income and exp.:

Unrealized holding gains on inv. sec.          80,000

Interest expense                                          <u> (40,000) </u>

Income before tax                                        520,000

Income tax (30% * $520,000)                    <u> (156,000) </u>

Net income                                                  <u>  364,000 </u>

EPS (364,000 / 1,000,000)                                 0.36

8 0
3 years ago
You have $12,500 you want to invest for the next 30 years. You are offered an investment plan that will pay you 7 percent per ye
lubasha [3.4K]

Answer:

Balance after 30 years = $151,018.50

Explanation:

In order to calculate this, we will calculate the future value on an amount invested, gaining interest over the years of investment, and this is given by:

FV = PV (1 + r)^{t}

where:

FV = future value

PV = present value

r = interest rate

t = time in years.

Hence the future value is calculated as follows:

1. For the first 10 years at 7% interest:

7% interest = 7/100 = 0.07

FV = 12,500 (1 + 0.07)^{10}

FV = 12,500 (1.07)^{10}\\FV = 12,500 * 1.967 = 24,589.392

2. For the last 20 years at 9.5%(0.095) interest:

Note that for the remaining 20 years, the present value (PV) used = 24,589.392, as ending balance after the first 10 years

FV = 24,589.392 (1 + 0.095)^{20}

FV = 24,589.392 (1.095)^{20}\\FV= 24,589.392 * 6.1416\\FV = 151,018.496

Total Future value earned = $151,018.50

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Answer:

efficiently, effectively

Explanation:

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as well as coordination of the efforts of employees as well as utilization of available resources.

It should be noted that Management is a process designed to achieve an organization's objectives by using its resources efficiently (accomplishing the objectives with a minimum of resources) and effectively

(having the intended result).

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2 years ago
On Sept 9, Daniels Corporation earns $2,000 by performing consulting services. Their customer said that she would pay next month
anyanavicka [17]

Answer:

The answers are:

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C) Accounts payable is not involved in this transaction.

D) The Consulting revenue account should be indented, as it is credited.

E) The correct account that should be debited is the Accounts receivable account.

Explanation:

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