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yan [13]
3 years ago
9

Which statement explains why the recombination frequency between two genes is always less than 50%?A) recombination cannot be mo

re than 50% because chromosome are only 50 map units in lengthB) F1gametes always have 50% of their alleles from each parental gameteC) The genotype of the F1 gametes will always be 50% parental games and 50% recombinant gametesD) genes with a recombination frequency near 50% are unlinked and have an equal likelihood of being inherited together or separately
Biology
1 answer:
Vitek1552 [10]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Option (D).

Explanation:

Recombination frequency nay be defined as the the frequency of crossover of a single chromosome during meiosis. The maxiumum recombination frequency is 50%.

Genes that has recombination frequency nearly equal to 50% are considered as unlinked genes. Unlinked genes cannot undergo the recombination process and may have equal chances to inherit together or can inherit separately in the next generation.

Thus, the correct answer is option (D).

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The correct answer is the third statement.

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In humans, the males possess one X and one Y chromosome, while the females possess two X chromosomes. Thus, the female always donates X chromosome to the gamete. In any case, the female always generates a similar kind of gamete. While the male either pass X or the Y chromosome to the progeny.  

When the gamete with the X chromosome combines with the female gamete than the offspring would possess XX chromosomes and will be a female. On the other hand, when the gamete comprising the Y chromosome combines with the female gamete than the offspring would possess the XY chromosome and will be a male. Thus, it is the father who determines the gender of the offspring.

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PLEASE NEED HELP!!
satela [25.4K]
The answer is b i believe


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