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NemiM [27]
3 years ago
15

A struggling company currently has a total value of $700,000. It owes $500,000 from debt financing (assume these are loans from

the bank if you wish). The value of the company to the owners is the difference between the total value and the amount owed to the debt holders. What is the current value of the firm to the owners? Now assume that a project is presented to the owners that results in a loss of the entire value of the company with a probability of 50% and results in a gain in value of $500,000 with probability 50% (resulting in a total value of $1,200,000). Show that this in expectation decreases the firm’s value, and explain why, in spite of that, the owners of the company would want to undertake the project.
Business
1 answer:
Lynna [10]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

What is the current value of the firm to the owners?

total value - debt = $700,000 - $500,000 = $200,000

Show that this in expectation decreases the firm’s value, and explain why, in spite of that, the owners of the company would want to undertake the project.

the expected value of the company after the new project = (50% x 0) + (50% x $1,200,000) = $600,000, so the net value of the company actually decreases by $100,000.

the issue here is that if things go wrong, the owners will lose $200,000, but if things go well, then the owners equity will increase by $500,000 to a total of $700,000. In this case, the expected value of this project for the owners = (50% x -$200,000) + (50% x $700,000) = $250,000.

I am assuming that this company is some type of corporation, LLC or LLP, not a partnership or sole proprietorship. Under current bankruptcy laws, when a cooperation goes bankrupt, the owners are not personally liable for it.

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Consider a hypothetical closed economy in which households spend $0.60 of each additional dollar they earn and save the remainin
Liono4ka [1.6K]

Answer: Marginal propensity to consume = $0.60

              Spending multiplier = $2.5

Explanation: The MPC can be calculated using following equation :-

MPC=\frac{change\:in\:consumption}{change\:in\:spending}

MPC=\frac{\$0.60}{\$1}

               = 0.60

Similarly, we can calculate spending multiplier as :-

Spending\:multiplier\:=\:\frac{1}{1-MPC}

Spending\:multiplier\:=\:\frac{1}{1-0.60}

                                            = $2.5

8 0
3 years ago
You purchased 1,000 shares of the New Fund at a price of $20 per share at the beginning of the year. You paid a front-end load o
Mazyrski [523]

Answer:

6.37%

Explanation:

Rate of return

= (Aggregate investment value after one year - Investment value) / investment value   ----- equation 1

Cost of shares =number of shares* price per share

             = 1000* $20 =$20,000

Total amount invested = Purchasing cost /(1- front-end load)

               = $20,000 / (1-0.04)

                =$20,000 / 0.96 = $20,833.333

Investment value after one year

           = Total Investment*( 1+ price increase-expense ratio)

         = $20,000( 1 +0.12 -0.012)

          = $20,000(1.12-0.012) = $20,000 * 1.108 = $22,160

From equation 1 above

Rate of return = ($22,160 - $ 20,833.333) / $20,833.333

        $ 1,326.667 / $ 20,833.333

= 0.06368001701

  = 0.0637

Since rates of return are expressed as %, we multiply the result by 100 to get

  0.0637*100 =6.37%

My rate of return on the fund will be 6.37% if I sell the shares at the end of the year.

7 0
3 years ago
Hazelwood Company had beginning inventory of $54,000. During the period the company purchased $109,800 of merchandise. At the en
Ilia_Sergeevich [38]

Answer:

$207000 is the sales revenue for the year.

Explanation:

The given situation is:

Sales Revenue                              100%

Cost Of Goods sold                     <u>  60% </u>

Profit Margin                                  40%

Now we neither have sales revenue figure nor the profit margin figures but we can calculate cost of goods sold from the following formula:

Cost Of Goods Sold = Opening Inventory + Purchases - Closing Inventory

By putting values we have:

Cost Of Goods Sold = $54,000 + $109,800 - $39,600

Cost Of Goods Sold = $124,200

Now cost of goods sold is 60% which means if we want to go at 100% we will divide with the percentage at which we are standing (60%) and multiply with the percentage which we want to calculate (Sales is 100%).

Sales revenue = Cost of goods sold  *    100% / 60%  

Sales revenue = $124200  * 100% / 60%  = $207,000

3 0
3 years ago
Joshua needed money for some unexpected expenses, so he borrowed $5,355.26 from a friend and agreed to repay the loan in seven e
konstantin123 [22]

Answer:

10%

25.14 years

Explanation:

A financial calculator can be used to solve these problems

PMT = $-1,100

PV = $5,355.26

FV = 0

N = 7

Compute I = 10%

PMT = $-25,000

FV =  $1,387,311

I = 6%

PV = 0

Compute N = 25.14 years

8 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is an objective of capital budgeting?
polet [3.4K]

Answer:

C. To earn a satisfactory return on investment.

Explanation:

The objective of the capital budgeting is that the company should have to do the investment in that thing which should be profitiable. In this, the company have the options i.e. either it selects the better investment or proposal for the enterprise

So as per the given situation, when the return on the investment is earn and it becames satisfactory so this represent the capital budgeting objective

Hence, the option c is correct

5 0
3 years ago
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