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Juliette [100K]
4 years ago
7

If the function m not-equals 0 has an inverse function, which statement must be true?

Mathematics
1 answer:
coldgirl [10]4 years ago
8 0

<em>Note: Your question is missing some details. After a little research, I am able to find the complete question which is as follows:</em>

If the function f(x) = mx + b has an inverse function, which statement must be true?

a) m=/0

b)  m = 0

c) b=/0

d )  b = 0

Answer:

The value of m cannot be equal to 0. In other words,

m\:\ne \:0

Step-by-step explanation:

Considering the function

f(x) = mx + b

Lets find the inverse of this function.

Suppose

  • y=f\left(x\right)
  • y=mx+b

Lets exchange the variables x and y such as

x=my+b

Lets isolate the variable y

my=x-b

y=\frac{x-b}{m}

Suppose

f\left(x\right)^{-1}=y

As

y=\frac{x-b}{m}

So, inverse function is

f\left(x\right)^{-1}=\frac{x-b}{m}

As the denominator m cannot be zero in the inverse function.

Thus, the value of m cannot be equal to 0. In other words,

m\:\ne \:0

Keywords: function, inverse function

Learn more about function, inverse function from brainly.com/question/8691744

#learnwithBrainly

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