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Verdich [7]
3 years ago
6

Who needs Brainliest?

Mathematics
2 answers:
Mandarinka [93]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The answer is 200000000

Step-by-step explanation:

You take all the numbers and follow the order of operations.

1/20 x 2=

0.1 x 40=

4 x 1000000=

4000000/2=

2000000

Levart [38]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

100²⁰⁰⁰⁰⁰⁰

Step-by-step explanation:

1/20 = .05 // .05*2 = .1 /// .1*40= 4 /// 4* 1000000 = 4000000 /// 4000000/2 = 2000000 so 100^ 1/20x2x40x1000000/2=100²⁰⁰⁰⁰⁰⁰

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4 divided by 2 + 5 - 3 = ?<br><br>3 + 5 x 8 divided by 2 = ?
sammy [17]

Answer:

  1. 4
  2. 23

Step-by-step explanation:

4\div \:2+5-3\\=2+5-3\\=4\\\\3+5\times \:8\div \:2\\=3+20\\=23

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A family spends 1/10 of its annual income for housing, 1/4 for food and clothes, 1/5 for general expenses, and 2/15 for entertai
AlexFokin [52]
Add all the fractions together:
to do this find the lcd:
which is 60
1/10 = 6/60
1/4= 15/60
1/5= 12/60
2/15= 8/60
add them together
(6+15+12+8)/60
41/60 or C is the answer

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
(-1/3) (-4-3x)=1/2 Solve for x
polet [3.4K]

Answer:

x=-5/6

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
Marcia has a licorice rope that is 28 inches long. She wants to cut it into 3,-inch pieces to share with friends. How many piece
diamong [38]

Answer:

9 pieces

Step-by-step explanation:

28 inches rope cut into 3-inch pieces

  • 28/3 = 9 1/3

There is no matching answer choice, if given numbers are correct then the answer is 9 full pieces

---------

<u>Note:</u>

  • The close answer choice is 8
  • 28/8 = 3 1/2 or 3.5
  • So if cut into 3.5 inch pieces then it is 8 full pieces
  • just in case it was typo 3 instead of 3.5
8 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which expression is equivalent to *picture attached*
DiKsa [7]

Answer:

The correct option is;

4 \left (\dfrac{50 (50+1) (2\times 50+1)}{6} \right ) +3  \left (\dfrac{50(51) }{2} \right )

Step-by-step explanation:

The given expression is presented as follows;

\sum\limits _{n = 1}^{50}n\times \left (4\cdot n + 3  \right )

Which can be expanded into the following form;

\sum\limits _{n = 1}^{50} \left (4\cdot n^2 + 3  \cdot n\right ) = 4 \times \sum\limits _{n = 1}^{50} \left  n^2 + 3  \times\sum\limits _{n = 1}^{50}  n

From which we have;

\sum\limits _{k = 1}^{n} \left  k^2 = \dfrac{n \times (n+1) \times(2n+1)}{6}

\sum\limits _{k = 1}^{n} \left  k = \dfrac{n \times (n+1) }{2}

Therefore, substituting the value of n = 50 we have;

\sum\limits _{n = 1}^{50} \left  k^2 = \dfrac{50 \times (50+1) \times(2\cdot 50+1)}{6}

\sum\limits _{k = 1}^{50} \left  k = \dfrac{50 \times (50+1) }{2}

Which gives;

4 \times \sum\limits _{n = 1}^{50} \left  n^2 =  4 \times \dfrac{n \times (n+1) \times(2n+1)}{6} = 4 \times \dfrac{50 \times (50+1) \times(2 \times 50+1)}{6}

3  \times\sum\limits _{n = 1}^{50}  n = 3  \times \dfrac{n \times (n+1) }{2} = 3  \times \dfrac{50 \times (51) }{2}

\sum\limits _{n = 1}^{50}n\times \left (4\cdot n + 3  \right ) = 4 \times \dfrac{50 \times (50+1) \times(2\times 50+1)}{6} +3  \times \dfrac{50 \times (51) }{2}

Therefore, we have;

4 \left (\dfrac{50 (50+1) (2\times 50+1)}{6} \right ) +3  \left (\dfrac{50(51) }{2} \right ).

4 0
3 years ago
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