Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Yes: 24 points/4 games = 6 points per game while 48 points/10 games = 24 points in 5 games.
Answer:
C is correct
Step-by-step explanation:
That is exponential
Answer:
c₁ = 1/2
c₂ = - e²/2
y = (1/2)*(eˣ - e²⁻ˣ)
Step-by-step explanation:
Given
y = c₁eˣ + c₂e⁻ˣ
y(1) = 0
y'(1) = e
We get y' :
y' = (c₁eˣ + c₂e⁻ˣ)' ⇒ y' = c₁eˣ - c₂e⁻ˣ
then we find y(1) :
y(1) = c₁e¹ + c₂e⁻¹ = 0
⇒ c₁ = - c₂/e² <em>(I)</em>
then we obtain y'(1):
y'(1) = c₁e¹ - c₂e⁻¹ = e <em>(II)</em>
⇒ (- c₂/e²)*e - c₂e⁻¹ = e
⇒ - c₂e⁻¹ - c₂e⁻¹ = - 2c₂e⁻¹ = e
⇒ c₂ = - e²/2
and
c₁ = - c₂/e² = - (- e²/2) / e²
⇒ c₁ = 1/2
Finally, the equation will be
y = (1/2)*eˣ - (e²/2)*e⁻ˣ = (1/2)*(eˣ - e²⁻ˣ)
Answer: 34
Step-by-step explanation: The more is the most common/ repeated number. 34 is repeated twice, but all the other numbers are only shown once. So 34 is the mode.
Answer:
a) No.
b) Yes.
c) Yes.
Step-by-step explanation:
a) No.
As being without replacement, the probabilities of each color in each draw change depending on the previous draws.
This is best modeled by an hypergeometric distribution.
b) Yes.
As being with replacement, the probabilities for each color is constant.
Also, there are only two colors, so the "success", with probability p, can be associated with the color red, and the "failure", with probability (1-p), with the color blue, for example.
(With more than two colors, it should be "red" and "not red", allowing only two possibilities).
c) Yes.
The answer is binary (Yes or No) and the probabilities are constant, so it can be represented as a binomial experiment.