Answer: D. 170
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
13. 0.145, 0.18, 0.206, 0.315
14. 1.75 times
<u><em>WARNING</em></u>
<em>im not completely sure sooo, Im really really sorry if you get it wrong</em>
Answer: it seems to be D, but the equation makes practically no sense!
The value of the factor changes for the different amounts of service years and vacation weeks.
Step-by-step explanation: The equation means that the employee is trying to figure out the value of the "v-factor" for how vacation time is earned.
If you substitute the number of service years into the left side of the "formula" and vacation weeks on the right side, then solve for "v", v(15)=5 you get v= 1/3 or 0.33
If you substitute other numbers, like v(2)=2, so v= 1 then v(30) = 8, v = 4/15 or 0.2667. You see the factor's value decreases. The company is much more generous to to employees with one or two years of service than with the older ones.
Answer:
m∡GHI = 21°
Step-by-step explanation:
Since the lines are intersecting, GHI and JHK are opposite angles, so they are the same measure.
That means you can set them equal to each other
x + 7 = 3x - 21
x = 14
Now plug x into GHI
14 + 7 = 21
m∡GHI = 21°
