Answer:
Holly must save $2845.81 at the end of each year
Explanation:
first calculate the value of tuition fees at n = 18
Cash flow formula = Tuition × 
Discounted CF formula = Cash flow ÷ 
10.00% 0
Year Cash flows Discounted CF
0 33,799.32 33799.32
1 36,165.28 32877.52
2 38,696.84 31980.86
3 41,405.62 31108.66
FV = $129,766.37
PV = 0
N = 18
rate = 10%
using PMT function in Excel
Annual contribution = $2845.81
Answer: $34,980.13
Explanation:
The amount that the company will spend 4 years from now is simply the future value of the amount that it can spend today.
The amount to be spent today is $20,000 so the amount to be spent 4 years from now is the future value of $20,000:
= Amount * (1 + rate) ^ number of years
= 20,000 * ( 1 + 15%)⁴
= $34,980.13
Answer:
A). The demand curve looked by the flawlessly serious firms are splendidly versatile this is a result of the items selling in the ideal rivalry. The items are indistinguishable so no firm has power over the market cost, in the event that one firm builds the cost of the item the purchasers will quickly move to the result of different firms on the grounds that the items are indistinguishable. No firm has the motivator lessen the cost of their item. So the interest bend would be a level straight line corresponding to the X pivot, this demonstrates the interest is splendidly versatile. A cost increment will bring the amount requested to zero.
B). The monopolists is just the single vendor in the market, so he can charge any value he needs, yet the amount requested will be relied on the value he charges. For instance in the event that he charges a significant expense the amount demanded will be very less and the other way around. So the monopolist is capable sell more at lower costs just, the descending inclining request bend shows the negative connection between the cost and the amount requested.
C). In the ideal rivalry there is consummately flexible interest so the MR curve is likewise the interest curve of the firm. For the monopolist the MR curve lies underneath the interest curve, as the costs go bring down the MR decreases.
Answer:
Variable cost per unit= $0.10
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Cost Machine Hours
March $3,106 15,176
April 2,668 9,558
May 2,892 11,947
June 3,538 17,899
<u>To calculate the variable cost under the high-low method, we need to use the following formula:</u>
Variable cost per unit= (Highest activity cost - Lowest activity cost)/ (Highest activity units - Lowest activity units)
Variable cost per unit= (3,583 - 2,668) / (17,899 - 9,558)
Variable cost per unit= $0.10
