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amid [387]
3 years ago
13

What is the square root of -1? -i i -1 1

Mathematics
1 answer:
Oksanka [162]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

the square root of -1 is i

Step-by-step explanation:

Well, actually, the square root of -1 (or any negative number at that) is not a real number. What I mean by that is that there is no way to square a real number to get a negative number (ie 2^{2} = 4, -2^{2} =4, there is no way to square a real number to get -4).

To solve this, mathematicians came up with the "imaginary number" i which, when squared, equals to -1. This allows us to get the square root of negative numbers (\sqrt{-4} = 2i) or get negative numbers through squaring (2i^{2} = -4).

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Create a step function for the following graph, be sure to watch holes in the graph. NEED HELP ASAP!
Svetllana [295]

Answer:

See below

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a piece-wise function.

         4, -4≤ x ≤ -2

f(x) =  2,  -2 ≤ x < 2

        -3,  2 ≤ x ≤ 4

6 0
3 years ago
A container holds 4 gallons of lemonade. A large lemonade contains 16 ounces. How many large lemonades could a restaurant sell b
Sergio [31]

Answer:

32 large lemonades

Step-by-step explanation:

4 gallons = 512 ounces

512 ounces / 16 ounces

= 32 large lemonades.

6 0
2 years ago
If granola costs $2.20 per pound, how much does 0.8 pound of granola cost?
alexgriva [62]

Answer:

$1.76

Step-by-step explanation:

when you multiply 2.20x 0.8 you get 1.76. at first I thought division was needed, but the answer to 2.20/0.8 is 2.75- which is more than the original cost. (sorry if this is confusing but) 0.8 pound is less than 1 pound, so the answer would need to be less than 2.20.

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Calculus piecewise function. ​
Kipish [7]

Part A

The notation \lim_{x \to 2^{+}}f(x) means that we're approaching x = 2 from the right hand side (aka positive side). This is known as a right hand limit.

So we could start at say x = 2.5 and get closer to 2 by getting to x = 2.4 then to x = 2.3 then 2.2, 2.1, 2.01, 2.001, etc

We don't actually arrive at x = 2 itself. We simply move closer and closer.

Since we're on the positive or right hand side of 2, this means we go with the rule involving x > 2

Therefore f(x) = (x/2) + 1

Plug in x = 2 to find that...

f(x) = (x/2) + 1

f(2) = (2/2) + 1

f(2) = 2

This shows \lim_{x \to 2^{+}}f(x) = 2

Then for the left hand limit \lim_{x \to 2^{-}}f(x), we'll involve x < 2 and we go for the first piece. So,

f(x) = 3-x

f(2) = 3-2

f(2) = 1

Therefore, \lim_{x \to 2^{-}}f(x) = 1

===============================================================

Part B

Because \lim_{x \to 2^{+}}f(x) \ne \lim_{x \to 2^{-}}f(x) this means that the limit \lim_{x \to 2}f(x) does not exist.

If you are a visual learner, check out the graph below of the piecewise function. Notice the gap or disconnect at x = 2. This can be thought of as two roads that are disconnected. There's no way for a car to go from one road to the other. Because of this disconnect, the limit doesn't exist at x = 2.

===============================================================

Part C

You'll follow the same type of steps shown in part A.

However, keep in mind that x = 4 is above x = 2, so we'll deal with x > 2 only.

So you'd only involve the second piece f(x) = (x/2) + 1

You should find that f(4) = 3, and that both left and right hand limits equal this value. The left and right hand limits approach the same y value. The limit does exist here. There are no gaps to worry about when x = 4.

===============================================================

Part D

As mentioned earlier, since \lim_{x \to 4^{+}}f(x) = \lim_{x \to 4^{-}}f(x) = 3, this means the limit \lim_{x \to 4}f(x) does exist and it's equal to 3.

As x gets closer and closer to 4, the y values are approaching 3. This applies to both directions.

4 0
2 years ago
What percentage is 52.54of 142 million
MariettaO [177]
The answer is 74,606,800
I you need an equation use 142 million times(multiplication) by 52.54 percent.
I hoped this helped :))
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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