No its irrational.The answer its irrational.
Answer:
i is defined as the square root of -1.
i^2 = -1
i^3 = -i
i^4 = 1
Following the pattern, we see that i^40 = 1, so i^38 is two above, or equal to -1.
So, i^38 = -1.
Let me know if this helps!
Solution:
The Preimage function is , F(x)=|x|
Consider a point (a,b) on the function, F(x)=|x|. it means
b=|a|-----(1) satisfies the function.
Now the function F(x)=|x| is vertically stretched by 5 units.It means
x=a , y= b+5
x=a, b=y-5
So, putting the value of a and b in equation (1).
y-5=|x|
y= |x| + 5 is vertical stretch of y= |x| by 5 units.
Answer:
or 50.4%
Step-by-step explanation:
The <em>probabilities</em> constitute a branch of mathematics that deals with measuring or quantitatively determining the possibility that an event or experiment produces a certain result. The probability is based on the study of combinatorics and is the necessary foundation of statistics.
A <em>permutation</em> is an ordered arrangement of objects in a group, without repetitions.
A 4-digit PIN is selected. What is the probability that there are no repeated digits?
First, there are only 10 possible values for each digit of the PIN (0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9). The total possibles 4 PINs are 
There's no repeated numbers and all the four numbers have to be different, which means we have to select 4 numbers out of 10 numbers. Using the permutation equation 

So, the probability that there are no repeated digits is:
P(A)=favorable cases/possible cases
or 50.4%
.
Plug in the second equation into the first equation for y.

Now put the variable on one side and constants on the other

Now plug that back into one of the original equations

So now you know

Its always a good idea to check