Answer:
Explanation:
Using the dividend growth model = Do(1+g)/Ke-g
Do=1.62$
G=4%
Ke=12%
Do(1+g)/Ke-g = 2.0736(1+4%)/12%-4%
= 1.6848
/8%
= 53.916
Year Year Year Year Year
0 1 2 3 4
20% 20% 20% 20%
Dividend 1 1.2 1.44 1.728 2.0736
Ifninty dividend 55.91*
Total Cashflows 1 1.2 1.44 1.728 55.98
Pres.Val @12% 1 1.07142 1.14795 1.22995 35.583
Value of stock 40.030
Answer:
In the country that promotes free-market economy is expected to start seeing firms arriving in this country and invest in those activities where this country has a comparative advantage.
Explanation:
This would lead to an efficient allocation of productive resources taking the economy to optimum production. The technology and tools will rapidly spread, and the industrialization process will be achieved. In the other country, investment and technology implementation is lead by the government allocating resources inefficiently and delaying industrialization.
Answer:
Nico invest $2500 at 9% interest rate and $800 at 4% interest rate.
Explanation:
He invests some money at 9%, and $1700 less than that amount at 4 %.
Let Nico invest $x at 9%.
It means he invest $( x-1700) at 4%.
The investments produced a total of $257 interest in 1 yr.




Add 68 on both sides.


Divide both sides by 0.13.

Nico invest $2500 at 9% interest rate.

Nico invest $800 at 4% interest rate.
Therefore Nico invest $2500 at 9% interest rate and $800 at 4% interest rate.
Answer:
5.32%
Explanation:
The computation of the coupon rate on the bonds is shown below:
As we know that
Current price = Annual coupon × Present value of annuity factor(6.1%,8 ) + $1,000 × Present value of discounting factor(6.1%,8)
$952 = Annual coupon × 6.18529143 + $1,000 × 0.622697222
Annual coupon is
= ($952 - 622.697222) ÷ 6.18529143
= $53.24
Now
Coupon rate is
= Annual coupon ÷ Face value
= $53.24 ÷ $1,000
= 5.32%
Working notes:
1. Present value of annuity is
= Annuity × [1 - (1 + interest rate)^-time period] ÷ rate
= Annual coupon × [1 - (1.061)^-8] ÷ 0.061
= Annual coupon × 6.18529143
And,
2.Present value of discounting factor is
= $1,000 ÷ 1.061^8
= $1000 × 0.622697222