Answer: d. np(1 - p).
Step-by-step explanation:
Let x be any binomial variable which represents the number of success such that 
, where n is the sample size or the total number of trials and p is the probability of getting success in each trial .
Then, the mean E(x) and the variance Var(x) for the binomial distribution is given by equation :
where n is the sample size or the total number of trials and p is the probability of getting success in each trial .
Therefore , the correct option is option d. np(1 - p) .
Answer:
23, 57
Step-by-step explanation:
Jenny-x
Jenny’s mom- 3x-12
X+3x-12=80
4x=92
X=23
Jenny is 23 and her mom is 57
Answer:
-12 bla bla bla bla bla bla bla
Answer:9.072×10³
Step-by-step explanation:
A number is said to be written in a scientific notation or standard form if it is expressed in the form a×10n where 1 is less than or equal to a and a is less than 10 and n is an integer
9072 is more than 10
So 9072÷10=907.2
Still 907.2 is more than 10
So 907.2÷10=90.72
Still 90.72 is more than 10
So 90.72÷10=9.072
9.072 is less than 10
We divided 9072 by 1000 and 1000 as a power of ten is 10³
So the answer is 9.072×10³
