Answer:2 : 1
Explanation:
current ratio = current asset/current liability
If current liability was $900,000 less $100,000= $800,000
Therefore the current ratio=
$1,700,000/$800,000 =
2 : 1
Answer:
B) 0.7; inelastic
Explanation:
The computation of the absolute value of the price elasticity of demand is shown below:
Elasticity is
= [(Sales - prior sales) ÷ ( Sales + prior sales) ÷ 2] ÷ [(price - dropped price) ÷ (price - dropped price) ÷ 2
= [(1,040,000 - 890,000) ÷ (1,040,000 + 890,000) ÷ 2] ÷ [(25,000 - 20,000) ÷ (25,000 + 20,000) ÷ 2]
= (150,000 ÷ 965,000) ÷ (5,000 ÷ 22,500)
= 0.15 ÷ 0.22
= 0.7
It is less than one so the demand is inelastic
Answer is d. all of the above
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Reserves J: Excess reserves J: Loans J: Deposits ;Money supply
Answer:
Annual Financial advantage $ 550
Explanation:
<u>Computation of income/loss on special order</u>
Unit product costs
Normal product costs $ 19.20
Incremental variable costs $ 1.30 per unit <u>$ 1.30</u>
Total product costs $ 20.50
Revenues per unit <u>$ 26.00</u>
Profit per unit $ 5.50
Sales Units 2,100 units
Total incremental profit on order $ 11,550
Less; cost of moulds <u>$ 11,000</u>
Incremental profit on S 47 order $ 550