In order to predict future demand, a forecasting process combines data from the market, internal operations, and the wider business environment.
<h3>What really happens during a forecast?</h3>
The process of forecasting entails creating predictions based on historical and current data. These can then be contrasted (resolved) with what actually occurs. For instance, a business can predict its revenue for the following year and then contrast that prediction with the actual outcomes. A comparable but more broad phrase is prediction.
The five stages for forecast,
- Step 1 is to define the issue.
- Step 2: Information gathering.
- Step 3: First exploratory analysis.
- Step 4: Choosing and fitting models
- Step 5: Utilizing and assessing a forecasting model
To learn more about forecast, refer to:
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Answer:
Do = $2.00
D1= Do(1+g)1 = $2(1+0.2)1 = $2.40
D2= Do(1+g)2 = $2(1+0.2)2 = $2.88
D3= Do(1+g)3 = $2(1+0.2)3 = $3.456
D4= Do(1+g)4 = $2(1+0.2)4 = $4.1472
D5= Do(1+g)5 = $2(1+0.2)5 = $4.97664
PHASE 1
V1 = D1/1+ke + D2/(1+ke)2 + D3/(1+ke)3 +D4/(1+ke)4 + D5/(1+ke)5
V1 = 2.40/(1+0.15) + 2.88/(1+0.15)2 + 3.456/(1+0.15)3 + 4.1472/(1+0.15)4 + 4.97664/(1+0.15)5
V1 = $2.0870 + $2.1777 + $2.2723 + $2.3712 + $2.4742
V1 = $11.3824
PHASE 2
V2 = DN(1+g)/ (Ke-g )(1+k e)n
V2 = $4.97664(1+0.02)/(0.15-0.02)(1+0.02)5
V2 = $5.0762/0.1435
V2 = $35.3742
Po = V1 + V2
Po = $11.3824 + $35.3742
Po = $46.76
Explanation: This is a typical question on valuation of shares with two growth rate regimes. In the first phase, the value of the share would be obtained by capitalizing the dividend for each year by the cost of equity of the company. The dividend for year 1 to year 5 was obtained by subjecting the current dividend paid(Do) to growth rate. The growth rate In the first regime was 20%.
In the second phase, the value of shares would be calculated by taking cognizance of the second growth rate of 2%. In this phase, the last dividend paid in year 5 would be discounted at the appropriate discount rate after it has been adjusted for growth.
I believe your answer is A: Unearned Revenue.
Because, if a business has received cash, in advance of services performed, and credits a liability account, the adjusting entry needed, after the services are performed, will be debit Unearned Revenue and credit Cash.
Answer:
Option (B) is correct.
Explanation:
1 pound = $1.60
1 pound = $1.50
So, there is a depreciation in the value of pound relative to the dollar and appreciation in the value of dollar relative to the pound.
Now, suppose a resident of united states purchase some quantity of goods(say, 20 shirts) from the seller in United kingdom.
Price of each shirt = 2 pounds
Hence,
Before the change in exchange rate, then the buyer have to pay in dollars:
= 20 × (2 × $1.60)
= 20 × 3.2
= $64
After the change in exchange rate, then the buyer have to pay in dollars:
= 20 × (2 × $1.50)
= 20 × 3
= $60
Hence, the amount paid by the resident of united states reduced because of the fall in exchange rate. Now, they have to pay less for the same amount of commodities. This shows that there is an appreciation in the currency of US relative to UK.
