Answer:
<u>Since expected payoff for large job shop option is highest, firm should make large job shop option as capacity choice</u>
Explanation:
Expected payoff of any capacity alternative
= Probability of moderate acceptance x Payoff of moderate acceptance + Probability of strong acceptance x Payoff of strong acceptance
= 0.40 x Payoff of moderate acceptance + 0.60 x Pay off of strong acceptance
Thus Pay off for small job shop option
= 0.40 x 24000 + 0.6 x 54000
= 9600 + 32400
= $42,000
Pay off for medium job shop option
= 0.40 x 20000 + 0.60 x 64000
= 8000 + 38400
= $ 46,400
Pay off for large job shop option
= - 0.40 x 2000 + 0.60 x 96000
= - 800 + 57600
= $56,800
Stephen should be more concerned with the shareholder management theory and Karishma should be more concerned with the stakeholder management theory.
The following information should be considered:
For shareholder:
- It is the owners of the company,
- It could be equity or preference shareholder.
- It should be considered when they are limited by shares.
For stakeholder:
- They are not the owners but have an interest in the company.
- Each company contains the stakeholder.
- It includes the creditors, government, etc.
- It should be considered for the performance of the company.
Therefore we can conclude that Stephen should be more concerned with the shareholder management theory and Karishma should be more concerned with the stakeholder management theory.
Learn more about the management here: brainly.com/question/14874943
Answer:
$1,200
Explanation:
For this question, we use the unitary method that is shown below:
Given that
Conversion price = $1,000 par
And, the subordinated debentures is $40
And the present market price is $48
So, the present conversion value is
= Conversion price × the present market price ÷ the subordinated debentures
= $1,000 × $48 ÷ $40
= $1,200
Answer:
The correct answer is b. $30,000.
Explanation:
The depreciation is systematic allocation of cost of asset over its useful life. In straight line method cost is allocated evenly during the period of asset usage. Detail calculations are given below.
Depreciation expense = Cost of asset/Useful Life
= 90,000/3
= 30,000
Answer:
Distributive is the correct answer.
Explanation: