Answer:
Hence, option (3) is correct.
Step-by-step explanation:
The probability that Roger wins a tennis tournament (event A) is 0.45 i.e. P(A)=0.45
The probability that Stephan wins the tournament (event B) is 0.40 i.e. P(B)=0.40
The probability of Roger winning the tournament, given that Stephan wins, is 0 i.e. 
The probability of Stephan winning the tournament, given that Roger wins, is 0 i.e. 
We know that 
⇒ P(A∩B)=0
But if A and B are independent events then P(A∩B)=P(A)×P(B)
Hence, P(A|B)=P(A)
Similarly 
Hence, if A and B are independent events then,
P(B|A)=P(B)
But in this situation such a thing is not possible.
Hence, option (3) is correct.