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mamaluj [8]
3 years ago
7

Manning Company issued 10,000 shares of its $5 par value common stock having a fair value of $25 per share and 15,000 shares of

its $15 par value preferred stock having a fair value of $20 per share for a lump sum of $530,000. How much of the proceeds would be allocated to the common stock?
Business
1 answer:
Setler79 [48]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

$240,909

Explanation:

Given:

Number of common stocks issued = 10,000

Value of common stock = $5

Fair value per share = $25

Number of shares of $15 par value = 15,000

preferred stock having a fair value of $20 per share = $530,000

Total market value of the stocks = 10,000 × $25 + 15,000 × 20 =  $550,000

Now,

The proceeds that would be allocated to the common stock will be

= \frac{\textup{Total fair value of common stocks}}{\textup{Total maket value of the stocks}}\times\textup{Preffered value of total stocks}

= \frac{10,000\times25}{550,000}\times530,000

= $240,909

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Answer:

cohesion

Explanation:

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3 years ago
Agent joh rogers is planning a formal marketing/sales event and has decided to place an adbertisment in the locla paper. what di
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7 0
1 year ago
What is the type of occupation of densist​
ivann1987 [24]

Answer:

Dentist is an occupation related to dental/tooth disease.

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7 0
1 year ago
CIRP. Jason Smith is a foreign exchange trader with Citibank. He notices the following quotes. Spot exchange rate SFr1.6627/$ Si
Zinaida [17]

Answer:

Answer explained below

Explanation:

A.

For six months, rSFr => 1.50% and r$ => 1.75%.

Since the exchange rate is in SFr/$ terms, the appropriate expression for the interest rate parity relation is

F/S => [ (1 +  rSFr ) / ( 1 + r$) ]

then we can also say

F/S *( 1 + r$) => (1 +  rSFr )

Now Left side => F/S *( 1 + r$) => [ ( 1 + 6.558) / ( + 1.6627) ] * (1 +0.0175)

Left side => 1.0133

and Right side =>  (1 +  rSFr ) => 1.0150

Since the left and right sides are not equal, IRP is not holding.

B and C.

Since IRP is not holding, there is an arbitrage possibility.

As 1.0133 < 1.0150,

we can say that the EuroSFr quote is more than what it should be as per the quotes for the other three variables. And, we can also say that the Euro$ quote is less than what it should be as per the quotes for the other three variables. Therefore, the arbitrage strategy should be based on borrowing in the Euro$ market and lending in the SFr market. The steps are as as follows. -

Borrow $1000000 for six-months at 3.5% per year and then we will pay back

=> $1000000 * (1 + 0.0175) => $1,017,500 six months later.

Convert $1000000 to SFr at the spot rate to get SFr 1662700.

Lend SFr 1662700 for six-months at 3% per year. Will get back

=> SFr1662700 * (1 + 0.0150) => SFr 1,687,641 six months later.

Sell SFr 1687641 six months forward. The transaction will be contracted as of the current date but delivery and settlement will only take place six months later. So, sixmonths later exchange

SFr 1,687,641 for => SFr 1687641 ⁄ SFr 1.6558/$ => $1,019,230.

The arbitrage profit six months later is 1019230 - 1017500 = $1,730

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Answer and Explanation:

The computation is shown below:

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= $39,600 ÷ 12 months × 28%

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And, for mortgage debt

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= $831.60

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