Answer:
The correct answer is False.
Explanation:
This statement is false, since the residual theory of dividends argues that these are irrelevant, that is, that the value of the company is not affected by its dividend policy. The main drivers of this theory are Modigliani and Miller. Both authors affirm that the value of the company is determined solely by the profitability and the degree of risk of its assets (investments), and that the way in which the organization divides its income between dividends and reinvestment does not have a direct effect on its value .
However, some studies show that significant changes in dividends affect the price of shares in the same direction, that is, increases in dividends translate into increases in stock prices, and vice versa. In response, M and M propose that the positive effects of dividend increases be attributed, not to the dividend itself, but to the informational content of dividends with respect to future income. Thus, any increase in dividends would cause investors to raise the price of the shares, while a decrease would cause a corresponding decrease in the price of the shares.
I think that it is A. Please Mark Brainliest!!!
The correct answer would be, Reverse Discrimination.
Recently, businesses have experienced debate over Reverse Discrimination, the practice of discriminating against a dominant or majority group of persons.
Explanation:
When people or group of people who were discriminated against previously, are being favored, then this practice is known as the Reverse Discrimination.
For example, reverse discrimination can be caused in an organization where previously discriminated Muslims are now being preferred and hired by the company.
Similarly the same practice can be seen in the companies where females are now being hired(even though the males are more qualified for the job) who were previously discriminated against men.
Reverse Discrimination is not a fair practice, because it is still a Discrimination.
Learn more about Reverse Discrimination at:
brainly.com/question/8562925
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Given the table showing <span>next year's expected costs
and activities below:
![\begin{tabular} {|C||C|C|} & Mixing & Baking\\[1ex] Direct labor hours&411,000 DLH&91,000 DLH\\ Maching hours&811,000 MH&811,000 MH\\[1ex] Overhead costs&\$534,300&\$411,000 \end{tabular}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cbegin%7Btabular%7D%0A%7B%7CC%7C%7CC%7CC%7C%7D%0A%20%26%20Mixing%20%26%20Baking%5C%5C%5B1ex%5D%0ADirect%20labor%20hours%26411%2C000%20DLH%2691%2C000%20DLH%5C%5C%0AMaching%20hours%26811%2C000%20MH%26811%2C000%20MH%5C%5C%5B1ex%5D%0AOverhead%20costs%26%5C%24534%2C300%26%5C%24411%2C000%0A%5Cend%7Btabular%7D)
Pard A:
</span><span>Aztec's departmental
overhead rate for the mixing department based on direct labor
hours is given by the mixing department's overhead cost divided by the mixing department's direct labor hours.
Thus, </span><span>departmental
overhead rate for the mixing department based on direct labor
hours is given by:

Part B:
</span>Aztec's departmental
overhead rate for the baking department based on direct labor
hours <span>is given by the baking department's overhead cost divided by the baking department's direct labor hours.
</span><span>Thus, <span>departmental
overhead rate for the baking department based on direct labor
hours is given by:

Part 3:
</span></span>Aztec's departmental
overhead rate for the baking department based on machine
hours <span>is given by the baking department's overhead cost divided by the baking department's machine hours.
</span><span>Thus, <span>departmental
overhead rate for the baking department based on machine
hours is given by:

</span></span>
I believe the answer is: by purchasing shares of the company
By purchasing a certain amount of shares, that investor automatically became part-owner of the company. For majority of companies, every 4 months, the company would announce the amount of dividend that they will give to the share owners. The amount of dividend that the owners receive would be according to the percentage of shares that they own.