Answer:
20%
Step-by-step explanation:
We can start by looking at it as a ratio, so 4 divided by 20 and 4/20 = 0.2, so that would be 20% viewing 1=100%.
Another way is
20 here is 100%, and for 20 to equal 100, we have to multiply it by 5. To balance it out, multiply the top by 5 as well, and 4 * 5 =20. Therefore, 4/20 = 20%
Answer:
y = 0.75x + 1
Step-by-step explanation:
Here, we want to write an equation in slope-intercept form to represent this information
Since $1 is the cost of 1 only, this represents our y intercept
It means if we are not interested in purchasing more than 1, our cost will be $1
Now, for each one bought after, we have a rate of $0.75 per one
Mathematically, that will be $0.75 times the number bought after
Hence. we have that;
y = 0.75x + 1
if 1, x = 0; so we have cost of 1 as $1
Answer:
D. unfavorable fixed overhead flexible minus budget variance
Step-by-step explanation:
As the cost of the equipment is increasing the fixed efficiency and idle capacity variance would be unfavorable resulting in an unfavorable fixed overhead flexible minus budget variance.
The expenses of the machinery are the fixed indirect costs which result in fixed overhead variances. Since it is related to the working of the machinery it would result in efficiency and idle capacity variances that in turn would give unfavorable fixed overhead of the flexible minus budget variance.
Answer: x=6
Step-by-step explanation:
