Answer:
Net present value = $2063.1922
Explanation:
given data
initially costs = $40,500
cash flows = $34,500
final cash inflow = $12,000
required rate of return = 18.5 percent
solution
The cash flows is
Year 0 = $40500
Year 1 = $0
Year 2 = $0
Year 3 = $34500
Year 4 = $34500
Year 5 = $0
Year 6 = $12000
so Net present value will be express as
Net present value = -Initial cash outflow + Present value of future cash flows ...............1
Present value of future cash flows = (cash flow in year n) ÷ (1 + required rate of return)^t ..........................2
put here value we get
Present value =
Present value = $42563.1922
Net present value= -$40500 + $42563.1922
Net present value = $2063.1922
Answer:
a) $28 Million
b) -$24 Million
Explanation:
The first part of the question is to determine the pension liability tht should be reported in the balance sheet
To do this, we use the following formula
Projected Benefit Obligation - The Plan Assets
= $65 million - $37 Million = $28 Million
Part B) This part says to dettermine the amount JDS would report if the planned asset increase to $89 million
The formula Projected Benefit Obligation - The Plan Assets still should be used but there is a difference as follows
$65 million - $89 Million = -$24 Million
When using the Euromarkets, companies pay less for the loans
Answer:
Option C) Decrease in Total Assets , and No Effect on Equity
Explanation:
Telephone bill it's a Current Liability , if you decide to pay it as soon as you receive it you have to use Cash which is part of your Current Asset, so the impact it's a decreased in your Current Assets through the Cash component.
This movement has no impact in the Sotckholder Equity.
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