Answer:
$124,000 is the correct answer if we use 6% which is the correct question scenario. If we take 7% then its
Explanation:
The cash dividend announced is $160,000. Remember the first payment goes to preferred shareholders and then the amount left would be distributed among the ordinary shareholders.
The dividend share of Preferred shareholders = 6000 shares * $100 par value * 6% fixed rate = $36,000
After deducting this amount from the dividend announce will go to ordinary shareholders and is calculated as under:
Share of Dividend of ordinary shareholders = $160,000 - $36,000
= $124,000
Similarly if we use 7% fixed rate, then
The dividend share of Preferred shareholders = 6000 shares * $100 par value * 7% fixed rate = $42,000
After deducting this amount from the dividend announce will go to ordinary shareholders and is calculated as under:
Share of Dividend of ordinary shareholders = $160,000 - $42,000
= $124,000
Answer:
prepare an expense record, and make certain that his credit is good so he can continue to spend more than he makes
Explanation:
Since in the question it is mentioned that an individual is recently hired as a financial analyst for a big company he remebered that how he can manage his personal finance and the financial concerns so in order to maintain its approach with respect to his own finance we should suggest that first prepare the record of an expense and also certain about the good credit score so that he is able to spend more
Therefore the first option is correct
Answer:
A). The demand curve looked by the flawlessly serious firms are splendidly versatile this is a result of the items selling in the ideal rivalry. The items are indistinguishable so no firm has power over the market cost, in the event that one firm builds the cost of the item the purchasers will quickly move to the result of different firms on the grounds that the items are indistinguishable. No firm has the motivator lessen the cost of their item. So the interest bend would be a level straight line corresponding to the X pivot, this demonstrates the interest is splendidly versatile. A cost increment will bring the amount requested to zero.
B). The monopolists is just the single vendor in the market, so he can charge any value he needs, yet the amount requested will be relied on the value he charges. For instance in the event that he charges a significant expense the amount demanded will be very less and the other way around. So the monopolist is capable sell more at lower costs just, the descending inclining request bend shows the negative connection between the cost and the amount requested.
C). In the ideal rivalry there is consummately flexible interest so the MR curve is likewise the interest curve of the firm. For the monopolist the MR curve lies underneath the interest curve, as the costs go bring down the MR decreases.
Answer:
The carrying value of the bonds immediately after the first interest payment is $434,300.
Explanation:
Face value of the bond = $440,000
Proceeds from bond issue = $434,000
Discount on bond payable = Face value of the bond - Proceeds from bond issue = $440,000 - $434,000 = $6,000
Total number of seminual = Number of years of bond maturity * Number of semiannual in a year = 10 * 2 = 20
Discount amortizaton per semiannual = Discount on bond payable / Total number of seminual = $6,000 / 20 = $300
Carrying value after first interest payment = Proceeds from bond issue + Discount amortizaton per semiannual = $434,000 + $300 = $434,300
Therefore, the carrying value of the bonds immediately after the first interest payment is $434,300.
