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rodikova [14]
3 years ago
13

Which of the following polynomials is a binomial

Mathematics
2 answers:
Dima020 [189]3 years ago
5 0
Hey there!

A binomial is a polynomial that contains two terms. Terms are separated from one another by mathematical symbols, such as +, –, and ×. A term can be a variable, a variable with a coefficient, a constant, or really any combination of coefficient, variable, and exponent that you can think of. For example...

(3x² – xy)

(x + 3)

(5x – 6y)

...are all binomials. 

Hope this helped you out! :-)
Vadim26 [7]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

5x-9

Step-by-step explanation:

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Solve the equation 2x3 + 7x2 – 10x – 24 = 0 in the real number system.
Rom4ik [11]

Answer:

x = 2

x = -4

x = -3/2

Step-by-step explanation:

We need to find the roots of the equation

2x^3 + 7x^2 – 10x – 24 = 0

We can factorize the equation into

(x-2)(x+4)(2x + 3) = 0

Roots

x = 2

x = -4

x = -3/2

The answer to your question is also attached in the images below

4 0
3 years ago
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Find the Taylor series for f(x) centered at the given value of a. [Assume that f has a power series expansion. Do not show that
juin [17]

Answer:

The Taylor series of f(x) around the point a, can be written as:

f(x) = f(a) + \frac{df}{dx}(a)*(x -a) + (1/2!)\frac{d^2f}{dx^2}(a)*(x - a)^2 + .....

Here we have:

f(x) = 4*cos(x)

a = 7*pi

then, let's calculate each part:

f(a) = 4*cos(7*pi) = -4

df/dx = -4*sin(x)

(df/dx)(a) = -4*sin(7*pi) = 0

(d^2f)/(dx^2) = -4*cos(x)

(d^2f)/(dx^2)(a) = -4*cos(7*pi) = 4

Here we already can see two things:

the odd derivatives will have a sin(x) function that is zero when evaluated in x = 7*pi, and we also can see that the sign will alternate between consecutive terms.

so we only will work with the even powers of the series:

f(x) = -4 + (1/2!)*4*(x - 7*pi)^2 - (1/4!)*4*(x - 7*pi)^4 + ....

So we can write it as:

f(x) = ∑fₙ

Such that the n-th term can written as:

fn = (-1)^{2n + 1}*4*(x - 7*pi)^{2n}

6 0
3 years ago
Help me on the last question please asap
bogdanovich [222]
Is the question your asking the one at the bottom
7 0
3 years ago
19/23 Marks
PilotLPTM [1.2K]

Answer:

0.28

Step-by-step explanation:

Let p be the probability of pasta.

Total probability is = 1

Therefore,

0.3 + 0.42 + p = 1

0.72 + p = 1

p = 1 - 0.72

p = 0.28

The probability that it will be pasta is 0.28

4 0
3 years ago
Complete the ratio tables?
julsineya [31]
1-5 4-20 6-30 10-50

explanation: multiply by 5
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3 years ago
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