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3 years ago

For the equation, y= -x - 4, tell whether it’s graph passes through the first quadrant. Explain how you know.

Mathematics

2 answers:

Nitella [24]3 years ago

6 0

The answer is letter A. hope this helps.

valkas [14]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

Answer is a

Step-by-step explanation: you are soooo welcome hun.

You might be interested in

Answer this please......

Brrunno [24]

Answer:

1). Option A

2). Option B

Step-by-step explanation:

Question 1

Rule for the dilation of a point by a scale factor 'k' is given by the rule,

(x, y) → (kx, ky)

By this rule image of point A when dilated by the scale factor = 1.25,

A(-12, -8) → A'[(-12 × 1.25), (-8 × 1.25)]

→ A'(-15, -10)

Option A will be the answer.

Question 2

Scale factor = $\frac{\text{Dimension or one side of the image}}{\text{Dimension or one side of the preimage}}$

From the figure attached,

Scale factor = $\frac{F'E'}{FE}$

= $\frac{4}{14}$

= $\frac{2}{7}$

Therefore, rule for the dilation of ABC to form image triangle A'B'C' will be,

(x, y) → $(\frac{2}{7}x, \frac{2}{7}y)$

Option B will be the answer.

8 0

3 years ago

You spent $88.50 at Target. You happen to have a $25 gift card from your birthday. If the sales tax rate was 6.5%, how much did

Nonamiya [84]

Answer:

67.6275

Step-by-step explanation:

ok so 88.5-25=63.50

63.50*6.50%=4.1275

63.50+4.1275=67.6275

3 0

4 years ago

Read 2 more answers

with the salary cap in the NFL, it is said that on "any given Sunday" any team could beat any other team. If we assume every wee

prohojiy [21]

Answer:

$P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X$

And we can find the individual probability like this:

$P(X=0) = 16C0 (0.5)^0 (1-0.5)^{16-0} = 0.0000153$

And replacing we got:

$P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X$

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming the following question: With the salary cap in the NFL, it is said that on any given Sunday any team could beat any other team. If we assume every week of the 16 week season a team has a 50% chance of winning, what is the probability that a team will have at least 1 win?

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$X \sim Binom(n=16, p=0.5)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

And we want this probability:

$P(X \geq 1)$

And using the complement rule we got:

$P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X$

And we can find the individual probability like this:

$P(X=0) = 16C0 (0.5)^0 (1-0.5)^{16-0} = 0.0000153$

And replacing we got:

$P(X \geq 1) = 1-P(X$

7 0

3 years ago

Ordered pairs that is satisfy to the equation y=-9x+3

trasher [3.6K]

Let x = 1. Substitute x = 1 into the equation:

y = -9X(1)+3

y = -9+3

y = -6

-> Ordered pairs are written in the form (x,y). Thus in this case, your ordered pair is (1,-6).

4 0

3 years ago

Please help! I will mark you as brainliest!

Dimas [21]

Answer:

36.6 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

We have the rectangle upright and the rectangle on its side.

Counting the sides starting from the lower left vertex and going clockwise.

7 + 4.3 + (7 - 4.3) + 7 + 4.3 + 7 + 4.3

= 7 + 4.3 + 2.7 + 7 + 4.3 + 7 + 4.3

= 36.6 cm

8 0

3 years ago