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fgiga [73]
3 years ago
14

You are asked to make comparisons of two pairs of countries. The first pair are the Latin American countries of Chile and Argent

ina; the second pair are France and Germany. You are given the following information:
The average saving rate in Argentina is 23.3 percent, in Chile it is 28.7percent, in France it is 21.1 percent, and in Germany, 20.8 percent.
(a) Assuming the countries are identical in every other way, which country would the Solow model predict to have the higher per capita real GDP?
(b) You find out the steady state real per capita GDP in each of the countries is $13, 300 in Argentina, $12, 500 in Chile, $31,300 in France, and $34,000 in Germany. What is the primary factor that the simple Solow model uses to describe these differences? Give an example
Business
2 answers:
aleksklad [387]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Part a: According to Solow model higher per capita real GDP will be in Chile because of its highest saving rate.

Part b: The per capita capital stock or the labour ratio is the primary factor for these differences in the simple Solow model.

Explanation:

<em>Part a:</em>

According to Solow model higher per capita real GDP will be in Chile because of its highest saving rate.

In Solow model the GDP per capita is defined as

                                           y=k^{\alpha}=f(k)

Also the steady state path is given as

sf(k)=(s+n)k\\\frac{s}{s+n}=\frac{k^*}{f(k^*)}\\\frac{s}{s+n}=\frac{k^*^{\alpha-1}}{k^*}\\\frac{s}{s+n}={k^*^{\alpha-2}}

As all other parameters are same thus the country with higher value of s will have a higher per capita GDP.

According to the Solow model, higher saving rate means larger capital stock and high level of output at the steady state.

Higher saving rate leads to faster growth in Solow model. So there is higher per capita real GDP for the country that has higher saving rate.

<em>Part b:</em>

In Simple Solow Model, the steady state per Capita GDP, y^* is the function of the steady state per capita capital stock given as k^*

Now this indicates that

y^*=f(k^*)

where f is an increasing concave function i.e. f'>0 and f''<0

Thus the sole dependence of per capita GDP is on per capita capital stock.

Thus the per capita capital stock or the labour ratio is the primary factor for these differences in the simple Solow model.

pochemuha3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

the Solow model will predict CHILE to have the higher per capita real GDP.

the primary factor that the simple Solow model use is CAPITAL. For example In 2018, capital investment was $3,652.2 billion for a capital contribution of 17.82%

Explanation: the solow model predict Chile to have higher per capital real GDP because Chile has the highest percentage of average saving rate among the four countries.

Capital is one of the factors in the growth accounting factor introduced by Robert solow in 1957.

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The main idea of this article is to expose the space that workers found when returning to their workplaces after isolation from the pandemic.

The article talks about the workplaces that had particular aspects after having been alone for 18 months of isolation due to the pandemic. For example:

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This situation originated because the workers carried out their daily work routine and did not contemplate being forced to isolate themselves for prevention to acquire the virus of the pandemic of the year 2020.

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Learn more in: brainly.com/question/2655465

4 0
3 years ago
Jmes Graham Manufacturing is a small manufacturer that uses machine-hours as its
IgorLugansk [536]

Answer:

Instructions are below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Company - Job 62 - Job 63

Direct materials: $60,000 - $4,500 - $7,100

Direct labor: $25,000 - $2,500 - $4,200

overhead costs $72,000

Machine hours: 90,000 - 1,350 - 3,100

During 2019, the actual machine-hours totaled 95,000, and actual overhead costs were $71,000. Job 62 consisting of 1,000 units and Job 63 consisting of 2000 units were completed during the month.

A) To calculate the estimated manufacturing overhead rate we need to use the following formula:

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= 72,000/90,000

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate=  0.8 per machine-hour

B) Total manufacturing cost= direct material + direct labor + allocated overhead

Job 62:

Total manufacturing cost= 4,500 + 2,500 + 0.8*1,350

Total manufacturing cost= $8,080

Job 63:

Total manufacturing cost= 7,100 + 4,200 + 0.8*3,100

Total manufacturing cost= $13,780

C) Unitary cost= total cost/ number of units

Job 62:

Unitary cost= 8,080/1,000= $8.08

Job 63:

Unitary cost= 13,780/2,000= $6.89

D) First, we need to apply overhead for the company as a whole:

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Allocated MOH= 0.8*95,000

Allocated MOH= $76,000

Now, we can calculate the over/under applied overhead:

Under/over applied overhead= real overhead - allocated overhead

Under/over applied overhead= 71,000 - 76,000

Overapplied overhead= $5,000

E) Job 62= 14,000

Job 63= 18,000

Gross profit= sales - cost of goods sold

Job 62:

Gross profit= 14,000 - 8,080= $5,920

Job 63:

Gross profit= 18,000 - 13,780= $4,220

7 0
3 years ago
(A bond forward) A certain 10-year bond is currently selling for $920 A friend of yours owns a forward contract on this bond tha
sleet_krkn [62]

Answer: -$100

Explanation:

Value of forward contract = Selling price - Forward price on bond

Forward price = Present value of cashflows + Present value of bond

Periodic rate = 7%/ 2 = 3.5% per semi annum

= 8% / 2 = 4%

3.5% will be used to discount the payment 6 months from now as that is the 6 month rate. The rest will be 4%.

= (80 / (1 + 3.5%) ) + ( 80 / ( 1 + 4%)²) + (940 / ( 1 +4%)²)

= $1,020.342

= $1,020

Value of forward contract = 920 - 1,020

= -$100

4 0
3 years ago
How manny people went to collage, and wish they hadn't? (This year.) (Average)
Anna007 [38]
Around 22 % this year alone.

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A disadvantage of the line structure is that it
Ivahew [28]

Answer:

Disadvantages of a Line Organization

A line organization can suffer from a lack of specialization. This is because each department manager is concerned only with the activities of his own department. Therefore, employees are skilled in tasks pertaining to their departments alone.

These organizations can overburden a keyman or a few key-men to the extent of their breaking point. Also, in the absence of a staff aid, if a strong man seizes the organization, he can run it arbitrarily. Such arbitrary power can lead to a considerable damage to the organization.

Such organizations usually suffer from a lack of expert advice. If the line manager has trouble making a decision, there is no expert staff that he can turn to.

A line organization is usually rigid and inflexible. In fact, such organizations maintain discipline so rigorously that they can rarely change.

These organizations are based on the autocratic system of management.

The division of work is not based on any scientific plan but on the whims of the manager.

It might stop progress and prevent the unit to work effectively.

Such organizations might also encourage nepotism or favoritism based on relationship or friendship.

I hope this is helpful information.

8 0
3 years ago
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