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balandron [24]
3 years ago
10

Trek Cycles estimates the production of the model X-1 will incur an overhead of 150,000 machine hours and cost $30,000. It takes

6 machine hours per bicycle, a direct material cost of $5 per bicycle, and direct labor of $5 per bicycle. What is the cost of each X-1 bicycle produced
Business
1 answer:
Lelechka [254]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Unitary cost= $11.2

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Estimated overhead= $30,000

Estimated machine-hours= 150,000

It takes 6 machine hours per bicycle, a direct material cost of $5 per bicycle, and direct labor of $5 per bicycle.

First, we need to calculate the predetermined overhead rate:

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= 30,000/150,000

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $0.2 per machine hour

Now, we can determine the unitary cost:

Unitary cost= 5 + 5 + 0.2*6= $11.2

You might be interested in
A factory worker earns $500 per week and will receive a $2,000 bonus at year-end, a 2-week paid vacation, and 5 paid holidays. T
Scorpion4ik [409]

Answer:

$70

Explanation:

Data provided in the question:

Earnings per week = $500

Bonus received per year = $2,000

Paid vacation = 2 weeks

Paid holidays = 5

Now,

Since  the workers have 2 weeks of vacation the fringe benefit will be calculated for 50 weeks  

[as 1 year have 52 weeks, so  52 - 2 weeks = 50 weeks]

Now,

Bonus per week = $2,000 ÷ 50 weeks

= $40 per week

Vacation pay for the year = Earning per week × Total vacation per year

= $500 × 2 weeks =  $1,000

Thus,

Vacation pay per week = $1,000 ÷ 50 weeks

= $20 per week

since there are 5 days working in a week

Holiday pay per day = $500 ÷ 5 days

= $100 per day

Thus,

Total holiday pay for a year =  Holiday pay per day × total holidays per year

= $100 × 5

= $500

Therefore,

Holiday pay per week = $500 ÷ 50 weeks

= $10 per week

Hence,

Combined amount of accrual

= $40 + $20 + $10

= $70

5 0
3 years ago
The marginal propensity to consume is 0.75 and the economy is operating at full-employment real GDP at $510 billion. If a $20 bi
KiRa [710]

Answer:

Long run real GDP will remain unchanged.

Explanation:

The increase in personal taxes (-$20 billion) would offset any increase in real GDP generated by the increase in private consumption ($20 billion). Nominal GDP can be affected and increase by $20 billion, but the effect would be given by an increase in general price level (inflation), not by an increase in real money.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Land was acquired in 2021 for a future building site at a cost of $40,000. The assessed valuation for tax purposes is $27,000, a
Aleks [24]

Answer:

The land should be reported in the financial statements at $40,000

Explanation:

At the time of recording of the fixed assets, the fixed assets should be recorded at purchase cost or historical price

Since in the question, the land was purchased at $40,000 and moreover, it is assessed for the tax purpose for $27,000 and by other appraisers it was valued at $48,000 plus there is an offer of cash payment for $46,000

But at the time of recording, the balance sheet would show at the purchase price i.e $40,000

8 0
3 years ago
Blushing Co. had Total Assets of $105,000, which included Cash of $30,000, Accounts Receivable of $15,000 Merchandise Inventory
madam [21]

The Acid-test ratio of Blushing Co,. is 1.25.

Acid-test ratio is also known as the quick ratio. It is the ratio of a firm's current assets to its current liabilities.  It is a type of liquidity ratio. Liquidity ratio measures the ability of a firm to meet its short term obligation. The higher the acid-test ratio, the higher the liquidity of the firm.

Acid test ratio = (current asset - inventory) / current liabilities

  • Current assets - inventory = $105,000 - $60,000 = $45,000
  • Current liabilities = $60,000
  • Acid-test ratio = $45,000 /  $60,000 = 0.75

A similar question was answered here: brainly.com/question/13972407

4 0
3 years ago
A labor-intensive process has a fixed cost of $338,000 and a variable cost of $143 per unit. A capital-intensive (automated) pro
sertanlavr [38]

Answer:

the 17,941 units should be produced and sold

Explanation:

The computation of the number of units that should be generated and sold is shown below:

Let us assume the number of units be n

Now as we know that

Total labor cost = variable cost + fixed cost

So the equations are

For labor intensive = $33,8000 + 143 n

And

For capital intensive = $1,244,000 + $92.5n

It could be written as

$1,244,000 + $92.5 n  <  $338,000 + $143 n

After solving it

n> 906,000÷ 50.5

n>17941

And,

$1,244,000 + $92.5 n < 197 n

After solving it

n>$1,244,000 ÷ 104.5

n>11,904

So the highest is 17,941

Therefore the 17,941 units should be produced and sold

4 0
3 years ago
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