Answer:
B
Step-by-step explanation:
10 + (-42)
10 - 42
-32
Answer:
1) x=0.465
2) option A.
Step-by-step explanation:
1) The given equation is:
We rewrite this as logarithm to get:
![x + 2 = log_{3}(15)](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=x%20%2B%202%20%3D%20%20log_%7B3%7D%2815%29%20)
The change of base formula is:
![log_{b}(y) = \frac{ log(y) }{ log(b) }](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20log_%7Bb%7D%28y%29%20%20%3D%20%20%5Cfrac%7B%20log%28y%29%20%7D%7B%20log%28b%29%20%7D%20)
We apply the change of base formula on the RHS to get:
![x + 2 = \frac{ log(15) }{ log(3) }](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=x%20%2B%202%20%3D%20%20%5Cfrac%7B%20log%2815%29%20%7D%7B%20log%283%29%20%7D%20)
![x + 2 = \frac{1.176}{0.477}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=x%20%2B%202%20%3D%20%20%5Cfrac%7B1.176%7D%7B0.477%7D%20)
![x + 2 = 2.465](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=x%20%2B%202%20%3D%202.465)
Group similar terms:
![x = 2.465 - 2.000 = 0.465](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=x%20%3D%202.465%20-%202.000%20%3D%200.465)
2)
From the graph, the logarithmic function approaches negative infinity as x approaches -6.
Therefore the vertical asymptote is x=-6
The graph touches the x-axis at x=-5, therefore the x-intercept is x=-5.
The correct answer is A.
Answer:
6/25
Step-by-step explanation:
Because england, scotland and france are european team and they make up 3/5 of all the teams, you multiply 3/5 by 2/5 because the south american teams are brazil and argentina which make up 2/5 of the total teams. So the probability that a european team will play a south american team is 3/5*2/5 which is 6/25
Answer:
D. 80
Step-by-step explanation:
multiply 40 by 2 cause its 50 percent