1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
NeX [460]
3 years ago
6

What do two equivalent expression always have in common

Mathematics
1 answer:
Andre45 [30]3 years ago
6 0
<span> according to the code of Mathematical Logic, there exists more properties, one of its principles is the consequence and effects property, or the so-called equivalence implicationwhich is defined as follows:Two expressions A and B are equivalent if A can produce B, and B can produce A. It means A implies B and B implies A.</span>
You might be interested in
The old price of a 24" television is $499.00. It has been marked up 12%. What is the new price?
BartSMP [9]

Answer:

$558.88

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
2 years ago
NEED HELP . GIVING BRAINLIEST
andreev551 [17]

Answer:

There are 108 inches in 9 feet

Step-by-step explanation:

Well, two unit multipliers mean we have to convert through two units before we arrive at our final answer so we can convert from feet to yards to inches!

We know that 3 feet equal a yard, right?

So we can divide 9 by 3 to get the amount that 9 feet translates to in yards.

9/3 = 3!

So we are now done with our first conversion! Our second is going to be from yards to inches!

There are 36 inches in 1 yard so we should multiply 3 by 36 to get the amount in inches!

3*36 = 108!

4 0
2 years ago
Explain how 9*4 can help you find 9*8
statuscvo [17]
It can help because 9×4 =36, and 9×8=72. if you divide 72 by 2 you get 36 which is the answer to 9 ×4. basically because nine is the same in both problems you are multiplying by 4 (and you know 4 is half of 8) you can assume that multiplying the sum of 4 and 9 that you will get the sum of 8 and 9.
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
If multiplying by 1/4 makes a positive number smaller then what does dividing by 1/4 do to the value of the number? Explain your
Free_Kalibri [48]

Hello,

If multiplying by 1/4 makes a positive number smaller then dividing  by 1/4 makes the number its being dividing to see how many times 1/4 can be put into that number. For Example,

2 / 1/4 = 8

1/4 can go into 2 eight times!

Hope This Helps!

5 0
3 years ago
I think of a number multiply it by two subtract 5 and multiply the result by 3
Semmy [17]

Answer:

=)

Step-by-step explanation:

You could do 40 x 2 = 80 - 5 = 75 x 3 = 225

So if this is right, The answer would be 225

7 0
2 years ago
Other questions:
  • The US cencus bureau claimed that the US population increased by 27.3 million people from 2000 to 2010, which is a 9.7% increase
    13·1 answer
  • An assembly line produces 2 toasters per minute. It is 2:00pm and the line has finished 560 out of its goal of 900 for the day.
    10·1 answer
  • A scientist created a scatterplot to display the height of a plant over a 12-day period. Plant Height A graph has days on the x-
    10·2 answers
  • How do i evaluate this expression​
    10·2 answers
  • An office uses 478 lb of paper one week. The paper comes in packages that hold 18 lb of paper each.
    10·1 answer
  • Which number best represents the point graft on a number line -10 -9 -8 -7 -6 -5 point -4 -3 -2 -1
    5·1 answer
  • What is 40% of 50% of 1200
    12·1 answer
  • Sophia's batting average is 0.022 higher than Joud's batting average of 0.169. what is Sophia's batting average?
    15·1 answer
  • Greta was making a drink of squash.she poured 200ml of concentrate into a glass which had a total capacity of 550ml.how much wat
    7·1 answer
  • There are three times as many girls as boys in the school choir. If there are 24 girls how many singers are in the chior altoget
    12·2 answers
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!