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ratelena [41]
3 years ago
7

Complete each statement. An event with a probability of 0 is An event with a probability of 1 is

Mathematics
2 answers:
FromTheMoon [43]3 years ago
6 0
<h3>An event with a probability of 0 is <u>Impossible</u>. ✔</h3><h3>An event with a probability of 1 is <u>Certain</u>. ✔</h3><h3>Hope i Helped ❤</h3>
BaLLatris [955]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

An event with a probability of 0 is impossible.  

An event with a probability of 1 is certain.

Step-by-step explanation:

Probability is typically expressed in terms of a fraction between 0 and 1 where the denominator is the total number of outcomes and the numerator is the number of desired outcomes.  Since probability is expressed as a fraction, if the probability is 0, that means it is impossible, or there is no chance that the event can happen.  However, if the probability is 1, that means that the event is certain to happen and the odds are completely in your favor that the event will happen.  

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50 points. Please quick.
Allisa [31]

Answer:

Condition A.  

A rectangle with four right angles  

There can be many quadrilaterals satisfying this condition.

Condition B.

A square with one side measuring 5 inches

There can be only one quadrilateral satisfying this condition.

Condition C.

A rhombus with one angle measuring 43°

There can be many quadrilaterals satisfying this condition.

Condition D.

A parallelogram with one angle measuring 32°

There can be many quadrilaterals satisfying this condition.

Condition E.

A parallelogram with one angle measuring 48° and adjacent sides measuring 6 inches and 8 inches.

There can be only one quadrilateral satisfying this condition.

Condition F.

A rectangle with adjacent sides measuring 4 inches and 3 inches.

There can be only one quadrilateral satisfying this condition

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
How many pennies could you have if: When you Break de Pennies into groups of 2, you have 1 penny left over, AND when you break t
MariettaO [177]

Answer:

The answer is 31 pennies

Step-by-step explanation:

we have to find a number that gives a remainder of 1 when divided by both 2, 3 and 5.

The easiest way to do this is to list the factors of 5, add 1 to it, and test them until we find the one with a remainder of 1 by all three divisors. This is done as follows:

1) factor: 5 (+1) = 6

6 ÷ 2 = 3 remainder 0

6 ÷ 3 = 2 remainder 0

since there is a remainder of 0, when divided by 3, 6 is wrong

2) factor; 10 (+1) = 11

11 ÷ 3 = 3 remainder 2 ( 11 is not the correct answer

3) factor : 15 (+1) = 16

16 ÷ 2 = 8 remainder 0 ( 16 is  not the correct answer

4) factor : 20(+1) = 21

21 ÷ 3 = 7 remainder 0 ( 21 is wrong)

5) factor : 25(+1) = 26

26 ÷ 2 = 13 remainder 0 ( 26 is wrong)

6) factor : 30(+1) = 31

31 ÷ 2 = 15 Remainder 1

31 ÷ 3 = 10 Remainder 1

31 ÷ 5 = 6 Remainder 1

since all three divisors give a remainder of 1, the correct answer is 31

Therefore you have 31 pwnnies

6 0
3 years ago
13) You are setting the combination on a
Andre45 [30]

Answer:

there are 9 possibilities I think

3 0
3 years ago
A gate is made up of a rectangle and has a height of 6ft find the area of the gate
Snezhnost [94]

Answer: The area is 18ft

6 0
3 years ago
A series of quarterly payments of P1,300 each at the first payment is due at 4 years, and the last payment at the end of 12 year
gtnhenbr [62]

Answer:

The Value of Payments is  P18,557.15

Step-by-step explanation:

The quarterly payment is an annuity payment.

Use the following formula to calculate the present value of the payments.

PV of Annuity = Annuity Payment x ( 1 - ( 1 + interest rate )^-Numbers of periods ) / Interest rates

Where

Annuity Payment = Quarterly payment = P1,300

Interest rate = 5.12% x 3/12 = 1.375%

Numbers of periods = 4 years x 12/3 = 16 quarters

PV of Annuity = Value of Payments  = ?

Placing values in the formula

Value of Payments = P1,300 x ( 1 - ( 1 + 1.375% )^-16 ) / 1.375%

Value of Payments =  P18,557.15

4 0
3 years ago
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