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Schach [20]
3 years ago
10

DuPont analysis is conducted using the DuPont equation, which helps you analyze three important factors that drive a company's R

OE. According to the equation, which of the following factors affect a company's ROE directly? Check all that apply.
a. perational efficiency
b. Market-to-book-value ratio
c. Efficiency in use of total assets
Business
1 answer:
kobusy [5.1K]3 years ago
4 0

Answer: a. Operational efficiency

c. Efficiency in use of total assets

Explanation:ROE(RETURNS ON EQUITY) This is a term used in financial analysis,it is the percentage representation of the value of a company's NET INCOME DIVIDED BY THE VALUE OF THE SHAREHOLDERS SHARES. Both the balance sheet and the income statement is used when calculating ROE.

OPERATIONAL EFFICIENCY tries to Describe how well the management of the entire Operations is carried out. It is a major determining factor in ROE.

EFFICIENCY IN USE OF TOTAL ASSETS this is a term used to determine how well a company is effectively using it's assets. This assets can be in the form of Financial, Machines,raw materials etc.

Since ROE involves NET INCOME, efficiency in use of total assets is a major determining factor in ROE.

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Which of these options for saving money offers the lost liquidity?
daser333 [38]

The option of saving money that offers the most liquidity is a piggy bank. (option C)

<h3>What is liquidity?</h3>

Liquidity can be described as the ease with which an asset can easily be converted to cash. Paper currency and coins is the most liquid assets. Real estate is illiquid because it takes a long time for a real estate asset (e.g a house) to be sold and proceeds converted to cash.

Liquid assets earn less returns when compared with assets that are less liquid. This is because illiquid assets earn an illiquidity premium. An illiquidity premium compensates holders for holding an illiquid asset.

Money in a piggy bank is already in cash or coins and there is no need to convert it to cash again. Also, money in a piggybank is more accessible than the other options.

To learn more about liquidity, please check: brainly.com/question/15691477

#SPJ1

8 0
2 years ago
DYI Construction Co. is considering a new inventory system that will cost $750,000. The system is expected to generate positive
Oksanka [162]

Answer:

Year Cashflow        [email protected]% PV

$                      $

0 (750,000)             1          (750,000)

1        350,000               0.9259    324,065

2       325,000               0.8573     278,623

3        250,000              0.7938      198.450

4        180,000               0.7350      132,300

                                        NPV         184,438

The correct answer is D. The difference in answers is due to rounding error.

Explanation:

Net present value is the diffrence between initial outlay and present value of inflow. We need to discount the cash inflows for year 1 to year 4 at 8% and then calculate the present value of cash inflows by multiplying the cash inflows by the discount factors. Finally, we will calculate NPV by deducting the initial outlay from the present value of cash inflows.

6 0
3 years ago
Venzuela Company’s net income for 2020 is $50,000. The only potentially dilutive securities outstanding were 1,000 options issue
aev [14]

Answer:

$4.67 per share

Explanation:

The calculation of the diluted earning per share is given below:

= (Total income - preference dividends) ÷ (outstanding shares + diluted shares)

where,

Total income is $50,000

Outstanding shares is 10,000

And, the diluted shares is computed by following calculations

Amount paid towards shares = Options issued × Exercise price per share

= 1,000 × $6

= $6,000

And,

Value of options = Amount paid towards shares ÷ Current market price

= $6,000 ÷ $20

= 300

Therefore,

Diluted shares is

= Options issued - value of options

= 1,000 - 300

= 700

So Diluted Earnings per share is

= ($50,000) ÷ (10,000 + 700)

= $4.67 per share

4 0
3 years ago
Product A is normally sold for $9.60 per unit. A special price of $7.20 is offered for the export market. The variable productio
Sophie [7]

Answer:

A. Differential Analysis dated March 16

                                    Reject            Accept

Sales revenue per unit  $0              $7.20

Variable production cost 0                5.00

Additional export tariff     0                 1.08

Total variable costs          0             $6.08

Net income                    $0                $1.12

B. The special order should be accepted.

2) Product B:

Revenue of $39,500

Variable cost of goods sold of $25,500

Variable selling expenses of $16,500

Fixed costs of $15,000

Operational loss $17,500

Differential Analysis of May 9

                                    Reject            Accept

Sales revenue             $0                $39,500

Variable costs:

Product                        $0                 25,500

Selling                          $0                  16,500

Fixed costs                  $15,000         15,000

Total costs                   $15,000      $57,000

Net loss                       $15,000       $17,500

B) Product B should be discontinued.

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

Normal selling price per unit of Product A = $9.60

Special order price for the export market = $7.20

Variable production cost = $5.00 per unit

Additional export tariff = $1.08 ($7.20 * 15%)

Total variable production and export costs = $6.08

7 0
3 years ago
A perfect hedge (full coverage) on translation exposure can usually be achieved when which of the following occurs? a. Using a f
attashe74 [19]

Answer:

e). None of the above, because a perfect hedge does not exist

A perfect hedge is nearly impossible

Explanation:

A perfect hedge is a position undertaken by an investor that would eliminate the risk of an existing position, or a position that eliminates all market risk from a portfolio. In order to be a perfect hedge, a position would need to have a 100% inverse correlation to the initial position.

At the time of taking an opposite position in Derivatives Market, Perfect Hedge would mean covering the risk involved in the Cash Market Position completely, i.e. 100%. 2. Imperfect Hedge: When the position in the cash market is not completely hedged or not hedged to 100%, then such a hedge is called Imperfect Hedge.

6 0
3 years ago
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