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omeli [17]
2 years ago
14

Pam retires after 28 years of service with her employer. She is 66 years old and has contributed $42,000 to her employer's quali

fied pension fund. She elects to receive her retirement benefits as an annuity of $3,000 per month for the remainder of her life. The number of anticipated monthly annuity payments from the IRS table is 210.
Click here to access Exhibit 4.1 and Exhibit 4.2.

a. Assume that Pam retires in June 2015 and collects six annuity payments this year. What is her income from the annuity payments in the first year?
$ .__________________

b. Assume that Pam lives 25 years after retiring. What is her income from the annuity payments in the twenty-fourth year?
$ ._______________

c. Assume that Pam dies after collecting 160 payments. She collected eight payments in the year of her death. What are Pam's income and deductions from the annuity contract in the year of her death?
Income from the annuity payments: $ ___________________
Loss deduction: $ __________
Business
1 answer:
storchak [24]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Explanation:

Income from the annuity payments in the first year?

Exclution per payment = Total contribution to pension fund/ Number of anticipated monthly annuity payments = 42,000/210 = 200

Collects payments in 2015 = 6*3,000=18,000

Exclusion for capital recovery = 6*200 = 1,200

Net Income = 18,000-1,200 = 16,800

What is her income from the annuity payments in the twenty-fourth year?

3,000*12 = 36,000

What are Pam's income and deductions from the annuity contract in the year of her death?

Income from annuity payments = 3000 x 8 months = 24000

Loss deductions = 3000 x 4 months = 12000

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True [87]

Answer:

Net Income $23,588

Retained Earnings $140,088

Explanation:

To calculate the value of the retained earning at the end of the next year it's necessary to find the income of the current year and then deduct the dividends paid during the year, the remaining value adds to the retained earnings.

This value that we get of retained earnings at the end of the year, it's the value missing at the end of the year to explain the accounting equation of Assets = Liabilitites + Equity

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Trucking fees earned $ 135,000

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Retained Earnings Report  

Opening retained earnings $ 135,500

Add: Net Income $ 23,588

Subtotal $ 159,088

Less: Dividens -$ 19,000

Total $ 140,088

BALANCE SHEETS Dec 31

Cash  $ 8,600

Accounts Receivable  $ 16,500

Office Supplies  $ 2,000

TOTAL CURRENT ASSETS  $ 27,100

Equipment  $ 173,000

Accum Depreciation Truck  -$ 35,638

Land  $ 75,000

TOTAL NONCURRENT ASSETS  $ 212,362

TOTAL ASSETS  $ 239,462

Accounts Payable  $ 12,600

Interest Payable  $ 3,000

TOTAL CURRENT LIABILITIES  $ 15,600

Long Term Notes Payable  $ 52,000

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7 0
2 years ago
Jmes Graham Manufacturing is a small manufacturer that uses machine-hours as its
IgorLugansk [536]

Answer:

Instructions are below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Company - Job 62 - Job 63

Direct materials: $60,000 - $4,500 - $7,100

Direct labor: $25,000 - $2,500 - $4,200

overhead costs $72,000

Machine hours: 90,000 - 1,350 - 3,100

During 2019, the actual machine-hours totaled 95,000, and actual overhead costs were $71,000. Job 62 consisting of 1,000 units and Job 63 consisting of 2000 units were completed during the month.

A) To calculate the estimated manufacturing overhead rate we need to use the following formula:

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= 72,000/90,000

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate=  0.8 per machine-hour

B) Total manufacturing cost= direct material + direct labor + allocated overhead

Job 62:

Total manufacturing cost= 4,500 + 2,500 + 0.8*1,350

Total manufacturing cost= $8,080

Job 63:

Total manufacturing cost= 7,100 + 4,200 + 0.8*3,100

Total manufacturing cost= $13,780

C) Unitary cost= total cost/ number of units

Job 62:

Unitary cost= 8,080/1,000= $8.08

Job 63:

Unitary cost= 13,780/2,000= $6.89

D) First, we need to apply overhead for the company as a whole:

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Allocated MOH= 0.8*95,000

Allocated MOH= $76,000

Now, we can calculate the over/under applied overhead:

Under/over applied overhead= real overhead - allocated overhead

Under/over applied overhead= 71,000 - 76,000

Overapplied overhead= $5,000

E) Job 62= 14,000

Job 63= 18,000

Gross profit= sales - cost of goods sold

Job 62:

Gross profit= 14,000 - 8,080= $5,920

Job 63:

Gross profit= 18,000 - 13,780= $4,220

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