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iragen [17]
3 years ago
13

Goode Inc.'s stock has a required rate of return of 13.50%, and it sells for $15.00 per share. Goode's dividend is expected to g

row at a constant rate of 7.50%. What was the last dividend, D0?
Business
1 answer:
Ray Of Light [21]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The last dividend = $0.84

Explanation:

We know,

Current stock price, P_{0} = D_{1} ÷ (r_{s} - g)

Given,

Market rate of return, r_{s} = 13.50% = 0.135

Growth rate, g = 7.50% = 0.075

Expected dividend, D_{1} = D_{0} × (1 + g)

Thus we have to determine D_{0} as it is the current year dividend or most recent dividend.

Current stock price, P_{0} = $15

Putting the values into the above formula, we can get,

$15 = [D_{0} × (1 + g)] ÷ [(r_{s} - g)]

or, $15 = [D_{0} × (1 + 0.075)] ÷ (0.135 - 0.075)

or, $15 = (D_{0} × 1.075) ÷ 0.06

or, $15 = D_{0} × 17.9167

or, D_{0} = $15 ÷ 17.9167

Therefore, the last dividend D_{0},  = $0.84

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elena55 [62]

Answer:

Revenue/Income; Expenses

Explanation:

Profit or Loss is determined as the difference between the revenue made by a business (also known as its income), and the expenses spent in the process of generating that revenue.

Profit/Loss = Revenue - Expenses

If the difference is positive, the outcome is a profit. If the difference is negative, the outcome is a loss.

5 0
3 years ago
ExxonMobil has historically had a very low debt-to-equity ratio within the oil industry, but it recently issued $12 billion in n
Galina-37 [17]

Answer:

The WACC before bond issuance is 3.9% and the WACC after bond issuance is 3.71%

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In order to calculate the WACC before bond issuance , we would have to calculate first the cost of equity  using capital asset pricing model .

So Using CAPM we have Rf + Beta x Market risk premium

= 0.5% + 0.85 * 4%

= 3.9% . cost of equity

Therefore WACC before bond issuance = (Cost of equity x weight of equity + cost of debt (1-tax) x weight of debt)

= 3.9% . WACC before bond issuance will be equal to cost of equity in this case as there is no debt issue.

In order to calculate the WACC after bond issuance  we make the following calculation:

WACC after bond issuance = (Cost of equity x weight of equity + cost of debt (1-tax) x weight of debt)

= (3.9% x 0.9) + (2% x 0.1)

= 3.51% + 0.2%

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4 0
2 years ago
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An investor prefers to invest in companies that have high operating leverage. How can this be accomplished if the investor also
Fittoniya [83]

Answer:

B

Explanation:

Systemic risk are risk that are inherent in the economy. They cannot be diversified away. They are also known as market risk. examples of this risk include recession, inflation, and high interest rates. Investors should seek compensation for systemic risk. Systemic risk is measured by beta. The higher beta is, the higher the systemic risk and the higher the compensation demanded for by investors

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kirill115 [55]

Answer:

A) $4 million

Explanation:

The GDP is woth $4 million because GDP equals the sum of all produced goods and services, in a given year, within a country.

Inventories are part of GDP, counted as private investment, even if they are not sold. The reason for this is that firms payed someone for the inventory with the aim of earning a profit in the future, and assets that are purchased with the goal of getting economic benefit from their use, are qualified as investments.

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Answer:

A

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