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Olenka [21]
4 years ago
9

If 60 percent is 288 what is 100 percent

Mathematics
2 answers:
NemiM [27]4 years ago
8 0

Answer:

480

Step-by-step explanation:

60% to 288 = 100% to x

60 / 288 = 100 / x

cross multiply because this is a proportion

(60)(x) = (288)(100)

60x = 28800

x = 28800/60

x = 480 <==== 100% is 480

ale4655 [162]4 years ago
4 0
60/100 = 288/x

Cross multiply

60x=28800

Divide by 60

X=480
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What is the equation of the line that passes through the point (-5,-4) and has a slope of -3/5
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(a) A_1 and A_2 are indeed mutually-exclusive.

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Step-by-step explanation:

<h3>(a)</h3>

P(A_1 \; \cap \; A_2) = 0 means that it is impossible for events A_1 and A_2 to happen at the same time. Therefore, event A_1 and A_2 are mutually-exclusive.

<h3>(b)</h3>

By the definition of conditional probability:

\displaystyle P(B \; | \; A_1) = \frac{P(B \; \cap \; A_1)}{P(B)} = \frac{P(A_1 \; \cap \; B)}{P(B)}.

Rearrange to obtain:

\displaystyle P(A_1 \; \cap \; B) = P(B \; |\; A_1) \cdot  P(A_1) = 0.25 \times 0.20 = \frac{1}{20}.

Similarly:

\displaystyle P(A_2 \; \cap \; B) = P(B \; |\; A_2) \cdot  P(A_2) = 0.80 \times 0.05 = \frac{1}{25}.

<h3>(c)</h3>

Note that:

\begin{aligned}P(A_1 \; \cup \; A_2) &= P(A_1) + P(A_2) - P(A_1 \; \cap \; A_2) = 0.20 + 0.80 = 1\end{aligned}.

In other words, A_1 and A_2 are collectively-exhaustive. Since A_1 and A_2 are collectively-exhaustive and mutually-exclusive at the same time:

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<h3>(d)</h3>

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