Answer:
So the depreciation in year 1 is $95,000
Explanation:
Depreciation is the accounting method that is used to allocate cost of an asset over its useful life. It is assumed that an asset losses values over a period and the salvage or terminal value is the value of the good after its useful life has ended.
Straight line method of depreciation assumes equal allocation of depreciation expense over the useful life of an asset.
In the given the asset value is $570,000 and the terminal value is $0
Using the formula
Depreciation= (Value of asset- Salvage value)/Number of useful years
Depreciation= (570,000-0)/6
Depreciation= $95,000 paid equally for 6 years
So the depreciation in year 1 is $95,000
Answer:
The answer is D.
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. universally true for all markets
Other things being equal, as the price of goods and services increase, producers/firms tend to produce more(this is the popular law od supply) inorder to take advantage of the high revenue.
Unlike demand, for supply, price and quantity supplied are directly related.
Aspiring entrepreneurs can go to the internet, experienced entrepreneurs, Chambers of Commerce, Small Businessn Administration (SBA), college/university, or the community to get their questions answered. Hope this helps.
Answer:
Ratio will be 0.92
So option (A) will be the correct option
Explanation:
We have given net cash flow from operating activities = $37570
So net operating cash flow = $37570
Current liabilities at the bugging of the year = $38400
Current liabilities at the end of the year = $43200
So average current liabilities ![=\frac{38400+43200}{2}=$40800](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%3D%5Cfrac%7B38400%2B43200%7D%7B2%7D%3D%2440800)
We have to find the ratio of operating cash flow to current liabilities
So ratio will be ![=\frac{37570}{40800}=0.92](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%3D%5Cfrac%7B37570%7D%7B40800%7D%3D0.92)
So option (A) will be the correct option
If so maybe see hope help