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cestrela7 [59]
3 years ago
10

Miranda thinks she's ready to invest in the stock market. what should she have done to prepare? she should have paid off credit

card balances, saved up an emergency fund, and learned the basics about investing. she should have learned about all types of investing, even the most complicated investment types. she should have invested in a mutual fund. she should have purchased a home and saved enough to live for three to six months.
Business
2 answers:
Jobisdone [24]3 years ago
8 0
I think the correct answer from the choices listed above is the second option. The thing that she should have done to prepare would be that she should have learned about all types of investing, even the most complicated investment types. Hope this answers the question.
mr Goodwill [35]3 years ago
7 0

In order Miranda to be ready to invest in the stock market, she should have learned about all types of investing, even the most complicated investment types. Buying stocks involves setting up a brokerage account, adding funds, and doing research on the best stocks before tapping the buy and it is not as simple . This is the reason why Miranda should learn specific things about the stock market.

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Sheaves, Inc., has sales of $50,000, costs of $23,000, depreciation expense of $2,250, and interest expense of $2,000.
Dominik [7]

Answer:

$21,767.50

Explanation:

<u>Computation table:</u>

<u>Particular                      Amount</u>

Sales                             $50,000

Less: Costs                   $23,000

<u>Less: Depreciation       $2,250</u>

<u>EBIT                              $24,750</u>

<u>Less: Interest               $2,000. </u>

<u>EBT                              $22,750</u>

<u>Less: Tax (23%)           $5,232.50 </u>

<u>Net Income              $17,517.50</u>

$24,750 + 2,250 -5,232.50

$21,767.50

6 0
3 years ago
Assume the following sales data for a company: 2015 $910,000 2014 $770,000 2013 700,000 If 2013 is the base year, what is the pe
Sindrei [870]

Answer:

The percentaje increase in sales is 10%

Explanation:

To calculate the percentage increase in sales from 2013 to 2014 yo need to calculate the differential in sales from year to year using 2013 as a base.

You need to use the following formula:

Sales differential: [(year1-year0)/year0]*100

In this exercise:

Sales differential= [(770-700)/700]*100=10%

2014 sales increased by 10% compared to 2013 sales.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Suppose an Exxon Corporation bond will pay $4,500 ten years from now. If the going interest rate on safe 10-year bonds is 4.25%,
Luda [366]

Answer:

The answer is a. $2,967.92

Explanation:

Calculation of prent value

Present value = p* (1+i)^-10

Present value = $4,500 * (1+0.0425)^-10= <u>$2,967.92</u>

4 0
3 years ago
The Alford Group had 320,000 shares of common stock outstanding at January 1, 2018. The following activities affected common sha
jeka57 [31]

Answer:

1. $2.5 Per Share

2. $0.9375 per share

3. $1.25

Explanation:

According to the scenario, computation of the given data are as follow:-

1. EPS 2018

Earning Per Share(EPS) = Net Income ÷ Weighted Average Outstanding Share of Common Stock

2018:- Weighted Average Outstanding Share of Common Stock = (320,000 × 12 ÷ 12) - (24,000 × 10÷12) + (24,000 × 2÷ 12) + (96000 × 1÷12)

= 320,000 - 20,000 + 4,000 + 8,000 =312,000 shares

2018 Net Income = $780,000

Earning Per Share ( EPS ) 2018 = $780,000 ÷ 312,000 = $2.5 Per Share

2. 2019 EPS:-

Common Stock Share at the Beginning of 2019 =320,000 - 24,000 + 24,000 + 96,000 = 416,000 shares

2019:- Weighted Average Outstanding Share of Common Stock = 416,000 × 2 = 832,000

2019 Net Income = $780,000

EPS = $780,000 ÷ 832,000 = $0.9375 per share

3. The 2018 EPS Be Presented in 2019 Comparative Financial Statement = Net Income ÷ (Weighted Average Outstanding Shares Of Common Stock For 2018 × Stock) )

= $780,000 ÷ (312,000 × 2)

= $780,000 ÷ 624,000

= $1.25

5 0
3 years ago
A perfect hedge (full coverage) on translation exposure can usually be achieved when which of the following occurs? a. Using a f
attashe74 [19]

Answer:

e). None of the above, because a perfect hedge does not exist

A perfect hedge is nearly impossible

Explanation:

A perfect hedge is a position undertaken by an investor that would eliminate the risk of an existing position, or a position that eliminates all market risk from a portfolio. In order to be a perfect hedge, a position would need to have a 100% inverse correlation to the initial position.

At the time of taking an opposite position in Derivatives Market, Perfect Hedge would mean covering the risk involved in the Cash Market Position completely, i.e. 100%. 2. Imperfect Hedge: When the position in the cash market is not completely hedged or not hedged to 100%, then such a hedge is called Imperfect Hedge.

6 0
3 years ago
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