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ehidna [41]
3 years ago
12

Two functions are represented in different formats.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Pani-rosa [81]3 years ago
5 0
First let as solve the equation of the function 2:
solve the slope of the function
m = (y1 - y2) / (x1 - x2)
m = (65 - 85) / (0 - 1)
m = 20

then solve for the y intercept using one point ( 0, 65)
y = mx + b
65 = (20)0 + b
b = 65
so the equation is
y = 20x + 65

so the correct answer is <span>Function 1 has a greater rate of change than function.  function 1 has 32 rate of change while function 2 is 20</span>
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vladimir2022 [97]

Answer:

585 is the answer of your question.

Step-by-step explanation:

because formula is

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4 0
3 years ago
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What is the circumference of the circle?
Nady [450]

Answer:

18.84

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula for circumference is 2(pi)r, I think. The radius is 3. 3 times 2 is 6. 6 times 3.14 is around 18, I think.

4 0
3 years ago
The question is in the picture.
nordsb [41]
The first bullet is the answer
7 0
3 years ago
7.4 Practice
pickupchik [31]

The simulation of the medicine and the bowler hat are illustrations of probability

  • The probability that the medicine is effective on at least two is 0.767
  • The probability that the medicine is effective on none is 0
  • The probability that the bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is 0.3281

<h3>The probability that the medicine is effective on at least two</h3>

From the question,

  • Numbers 1 to 7 represents the medicine being effective
  • 0, 8 and 9 represents the medicine not being effective

From the simulation, 23 of the 30 randomly generated numbers show that the medicine is effective on at least two

So, the probability is:

p = 23/30

p = 0.767

Hence, the probability that the medicine is effective on at least two is 0.767

<h3>The probability that the medicine is effective on none</h3>

From the simulation, 0 of the 30 randomly generated numbers show that the medicine is effective on none

So, the probability is:

p = 0/30

p = 0

Hence, the probability that the medicine is effective on none is 0

<h3>The probability a bowler hits a headpin</h3>

The probability of hitting a headpin is:

p = 90%

The probability a bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is:

P(x) = nCx * p^x * (1 - p)^(n - x)

So, we have:

P(4) = 5C4 * (90%)^4 * (1 - 90%)^1

P(4) = 0.3281

Hence, the probability that the bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is 0.3281

Read more about probabilities at:

brainly.com/question/25870256

8 0
2 years ago
3) What is the mean value of the data?
soldi70 [24.7K]
The mean - add all the numbers (data) divided by the amount. 4+3+1+1+2+4+1 =16 16/7 = 2.28
The median - the middle number.
The mode - the most common number.
8 0
3 years ago
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