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EleoNora [17]
3 years ago
15

A $1,000 par value bond with a conversion price of $50 has a conversion ratio of

Business
1 answer:
AveGali [126]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Conversion ratio will be 20 shares

Explanation:

We have given bond value = $1000 per bond

Conversion price = $50

We have to find the conversion ratio

Conversion ratio is the ratio of bond value per bond to the conversion price

So conversion ratio will be equal to =\frac{bond\ value\ per\ bond}{conversion\ price}=\frac{1000}{50}=20\ shares

So conversion ratio will be 20 shares

So option (D) will be correct answer

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A _____ is targeted to borrowers with low credit scores, high debt-to-income ratios, or other signs of a reduced ability to repa
Andrej [43]
It would be <span>Subprime mortgage loan.
Hope this helps! :D</span>
3 0
4 years ago
For what eccentricity is the secondary focus (which is usually empty) located at the sun? What is the shape of this orbit?
saul85 [17]

Answer:

The eccentricity, denoted by e, is defined as that fraction of an ellipse size which causes the focus to move away from the center. When an ellipse has an eccentricity of zero, this means that the focus and the center are in one same place. Thus the eccentricity of the secondary focus located at the sun is zero when located at the sun. Thus with an eccentricity of zero, the focus and center will be at same place therefore making the shape of the orbit to be a perfect circle.

Explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
The risk-free rate of return is 2.5 percent; the expected rate of return on the market is 7 percent. Stock X has a beta coeffici
zvonat [6]

Answer:

  • Stock is overpriced/ overvalued.
  • Sell if you own it.
  • Don't buy if you don't.

Explanation:

Use CAPM to find the required return on the stock:

Required return = Risk free rate + beta * ( Market return - risk free rate)

= 2.5% + 1.3 * (7% - 2.5%)

= 8.35%

Price based on Constant Dividend Growth Model (CDGM):

Price = Next dividend / (Required return - growth rate)

Next dividend = 1.40 * ( 1 + 4%)

= $1.456

Price = 1.456 / (8.35% - 4%)

= $33.47

<em>Stock is selling for $35. It is overvalued. Don't buy the stock. Sell if you have the stock. </em>

4 0
2 years ago
A student deposits $1,642 in the bank that pays 6.2% interest yearly (using yearly compounding). After 5 years he withdraws the
tamaranim1 [39]

Answer:

the perpetuity will pay the student 166.36 dollar per years

Explanation:

First, we solve for the amount of the original investment after 5 years:

Principal \: (1+ r)^{time} = Amount

Principal 1,642.00

time 5.00

rate 0.06200

1642 \: (1+ 0.062)^{5} = Amount

Amount 2,218.17

<u>Then, this goes into a perpetual annuity at 7.5%</u>

2,218.17 x 0.075 = 166.3630983 = 166.36

the perpetuity will pay the student 166.36 dollar per years

6 0
3 years ago
At the end of the current year, using the aging of receivable method, management estimated that $28,500 of the accounts receivab
lyudmila [28]

Answer:

Adjusting entry the company made to record its estimated bad debts expense:

Bad Debts Expense 29,300

Allowance for Doubtful Accounts 29,300

Explanation:

The company uses the aging of receivable method to estimate uncollectible.

Estimated uncollectible would be $28,500

Before year-end adjustments, the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts had a debit balance of $800

Bad debts expense = $28,500 + $800 = $29,300

Adjusting entry the company made to record its estimated bad debts expense:

Bad Debts Expense 29,300

Allowance for Doubtful Accounts 29,300

3 0
3 years ago
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