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GREYUIT [131]
4 years ago
7

Eastern Products, Inc. has an attractive package of fringe benefits that costs the company $4 for each hour of employee time (ei

ther regular or overtime). During a particular week Robert worked 50 hours but was idle for 2 of the 50 hours due to material shortages. If the company treats that part of fringe benefits relating to direct labor as added direct labor cost, how much of Robert’s wages and fringe benefits for the week will be allocated to direct labor costs? To manufacturing overhead?
Business
1 answer:
hammer [34]4 years ago
4 0

Answer:

$192 will be allocated to the direct labor cost while $8 will be allocated to manufacturing overhead.

Explanation:

Costs relating to idle time are part of the fringe benefits that are related to direct labor and they are parts of the benefits given to workers.

Idle time is the number of time in which workers are idle during the normal working hours or day. Some of the causes of idle time include defective materials, power outage, faulty machine, shortage of raw materials, and among others.

In cost accounting, idle time costs are not included in the direct labor costs but are considered as indirect labor costs. Idle time costs are therefore included in manufacturing overhead cost.

From the question,

Direct labor cost = (Number of hours worked by Robert – Idle hours) × hourly rate

Direct labor cost = (50 - 2) × $4

                            = 48 × $4

                            = $192  

Idle time cost = Idle time × hourly rate

                      = 2 × $4

                      = $8

Total cost = Direct labor cost + Idle time cost

                 = $192 + $8

                 = $200

Since idle time cost is considered as indirect labor cost and to be included in manufacturing overhead cost, $192 will be allocated to the direct labor cost while $8 will be allocated to manufacturing overhead.

All the best.

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On the first day of the fiscal year, a company issues a $8,800,000, 7%, 10-year bond that pays semiannual interest of $308,000 (
andrezito [222]

Answer and Explanation:

The journal entry is shown below:

Interest expense $403,391

       To Cash $308,000

       To Discount on note payable $95,391

{($8,800,000 - $7,655,303) ÷ 12}

Here we debited the interest expense as it increased the expenses and credited the cash as it decreased the assets and credited the discount on note payable  

4 0
3 years ago
Suppose that the market demand curve for bean sprouts is given by P = 1,660 - 4Q, where P is the price and Q is total industry o
a_sh-v [17]

Answer:

In equilibrium, total output by the two firms will be option e= 300.  

Q = q_{1} + q_{2}

Q = 100 + 200

Q = 300

Explanation:

Data Given:

Market Demand Curve = P = 1660-4Q

where, P = price and Q = total industry output

Each firm's marginal cost = $60 per unit of output

So, we know that Q =  q_{1} + q_{2}

where q_{} being the individual firm output.

Solution:

P = 1660-4Q

P = 1660- 4(q_{1} + q_{2})

P = 1660 - 4q_{1} - 4q_{2}

Including the marginal cost of firm 1 and multiplying the whole equation by q_{1}

Let's suppose new equation is X

X =  1660q_{1} - 4q_{1} ^{2} - 4q_{1}q_{2} - 60q_{1}

Taking the derivative w.r.t to q_{1}, we will get:

X^{'} = 1660 - 8q_{1} - 4q_{2} - 60 = 0

Making rearrangements into the equation:

8q_{1} + q_{2} = 1660 - 60

8q_{1} + q_{2} = 1600

Dividing the whole equation by 4

2q_{1} +q_{2} = 400

Solving for q_{1}

2q_{1} = 400 - q_{2}

q_{1} = 200 - 0.5 q_{2}  

Including the marginal cost of firm 1 and multiplying the whole equation by q_{2}

P = 1660 - 4q_{1} - 4q_{2}

Let's suppose new equation is Y

Y =  1660q_{2} - 4q_{1}q_{2} -4q_{2} ^{2} - 60q_{2}

Pugging in the value of q_{1}

Y =  1660q_{2} - 4q_{2}(200 - 0.5 q_{2}) -4q_{2} ^{2} - 60q_{2}

Y =  1660q_{2} - 800q_{2} +2q_{2} ^{2} -4q_{2} ^{2} - 60q_{2}

Y =  1600q_{2} - 800q_{2} -2q_{2} ^{2}

Taking the derivative w.r.t q_{2}

Y^{'} = 1600 - 800 - 4q_{2} = 0

Solving for q_{2}

4q_{2} = 800

q_{2} = 200

q_{1} = 200 - 0.5 q_{2}

Plugging in the value of q_{2} to get the value of q_{1}

q_{1} = 200 - 0.5 (200)

q_{1} = 200 - 100

q_{1} = 100

Q = q_{1} + q_{2}

Q = 100 + 200

Q = 300

Hence, in equilibrium, total output by the two firms will be option

e= 300.

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. Based on the following data, Accounts payable…………………………………………………..... $62,000 Accounts receivable…………………………………………………. 100,000
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Answer:  $428,000

Explanation:

Given that,

Accounts payable = $62,000

Accounts receivable = 100,000

Cash = 30,000

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Land = 160,000

Common Stock = 200,000

Revenue = 80,000

Dividends = 56,000

Expenses = 40,000

Total assets = Accounts receivable + Cash + Inventory + Land

                     = 100,000 + 30,000 +  138,000 + 160,000

                     = $428,000

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